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CAT 2020 Slot 2 answer key with solutions

This is the complete CAT 2020 Slot 2 question paper with answer key and solutions — 76 questions across VARC, DILR, QA, 2h with sectional timers. Three sequential sections with sectional timers. MCQ negative marking; TITA has none. Browse the full paper free here; attempting it under timed conditions on MBACracked requires Pro.

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VARC(26 questions)

Q1Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

174 incidents of piracy were reported to the International Maritime Bureau last year, with Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal. For Dr. Peter Lehr, an expert on modern-day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a source of instruction rather than entertainment, piracy past offering lessons for piracy present. . . . But . . . where does piracy begin or end? According to St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power and wealth at sea, the difference between an emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By this logic, European empire-builders were the most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making comparisons with the renegades of today possible. The main motive for piracy has always been a combination of need and greed. Why toil away as a starving peasant in the 16th century when a successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid? Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards were worth the risk . . . . Increased globalisation has done more to encourage piracy than suppress it. European colonialism weakened delicate balances of power, leading to an influx of opportunists on the high seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly becomes clear that in those parts of the world that have not profited from globalization and modernisation, and where abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root causes of piracy are still the same as they were a couple of hundred years ago.” . . . Modern pirate prevention has failed. After the French yacht Le Gonant was ransomed for $2 million in 2008, opportunists from all over Somalia flocked to the coast for a piece of the action. . . . A consistent rule, even today, is there are never enough warships to patrol pirate-infested waters. Such ships are costly and only solve the problem temporarily; Somali piracy is bound to return as soon as the warships are withdrawn. Robot shipping, eliminating hostages, has been proposed as a possible solution; but as Lehr points out, this will only make pirates switch their targets to smaller carriers unable to afford the technology. His advice isn’t new. Proposals to end illegal fishing are often advanced but they are difficult to enforce. Investment in local welfare put a halt to Malaysian piracy in the 1970s, but was dependent on money somehow filtering through a corrupt bureaucracy to the poor on the periphery. Diplomatic initiatives against piracy are plagued by mutual distrust: the Russians execute pirates, while the EU and US are reluctant to capture them for fear they’ll claim asylum.

The author ascribes the rise in piracy today to all of the following factors EXCEPT:

  • Adecreased surveillance of the high seas.Correct answer
  • Bthe growth in international shipping with globalisation.
  • Cthe high rewards via ransoms for successful piracy attempts.
  • Dcolonialism’s disruption of historic ties among countries.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A EXCEPT: factors the author cites for today’s piracy include globalisation’s shipping boom, huge ransom payoffs, and colonial disruption of older regional ties. Reduced high-seas surveillance is *not* listed among those causes. Why the others fail: • B — Growth of international shipping under globalisation is named as enabling more targets. • C — Lucrative ransoms are given as the incentive structure. • D — Colonialism breaking historic inter-polity ties appears in the historical-to-present account.
Q2Reading Comprehension·Tone & Attitude

174 incidents of piracy were reported to the International Maritime Bureau last year, with Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal. For Dr. Peter Lehr, an expert on modern-day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a source of instruction rather than entertainment, piracy past offering lessons for piracy present. . . . But . . . where does piracy begin or end? According to St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power and wealth at sea, the difference between an emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By this logic, European empire-builders were the most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making comparisons with the renegades of today possible. The main motive for piracy has always been a combination of need and greed. Why toil away as a starving peasant in the 16th century when a successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid? Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards were worth the risk . . . . Increased globalisation has done more to encourage piracy than suppress it. European colonialism weakened delicate balances of power, leading to an influx of opportunists on the high seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly becomes clear that in those parts of the world that have not profited from globalization and modernisation, and where abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root causes of piracy are still the same as they were a couple of hundred years ago.” . . . Modern pirate prevention has failed. After the French yacht Le Gonant was ransomed for $2 million in 2008, opportunists from all over Somalia flocked to the coast for a piece of the action. . . . A consistent rule, even today, is there are never enough warships to patrol pirate-infested waters. Such ships are costly and only solve the problem temporarily; Somali piracy is bound to return as soon as the warships are withdrawn. Robot shipping, eliminating hostages, has been proposed as a possible solution; but as Lehr points out, this will only make pirates switch their targets to smaller carriers unable to afford the technology. His advice isn’t new. Proposals to end illegal fishing are often advanced but they are difficult to enforce. Investment in local welfare put a halt to Malaysian piracy in the 1970s, but was dependent on money somehow filtering through a corrupt bureaucracy to the poor on the periphery. Diplomatic initiatives against piracy are plagued by mutual distrust: the Russians execute pirates, while the EU and US are reluctant to capture them for fear they’ll claim asylum.

“Why toil away as a starving peasant in the 16th century when a successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid?” In this sentence, the author’s tone can best be described as being:

  • Aindignant, at the scale of wealth successful pirates could amass in medieval times.
  • Bironic, about the reasons why so many took to piracy in medieval times.Correct answer
  • Canalytical, to explain the contrasts between peasant and pirate life in medieval England.
  • Dfacetious, about the hardships of peasant life in medieval England.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B The rhetorical question wryly frames piracy as the rational career upgrade from starving peasantry—highlighting motive through irony, not sincere indignation or dry analysis alone. Why the others fail: • A — The tone is not moral outrage at pirate wealth; it ventriloquises the economic temptation. • C — “Analytical contrast” misses the pointed, almost sardonic phrasing. • D — Peasant hardship is backdrop; the barb is the payoff logic of piracy, not joking about peasantry per se.
Q3Reading Comprehension·Inference

174 incidents of piracy were reported to the International Maritime Bureau last year, with Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal. For Dr. Peter Lehr, an expert on modern-day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a source of instruction rather than entertainment, piracy past offering lessons for piracy present. . . . But . . . where does piracy begin or end? According to St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power and wealth at sea, the difference between an emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By this logic, European empire-builders were the most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making comparisons with the renegades of today possible. The main motive for piracy has always been a combination of need and greed. Why toil away as a starving peasant in the 16th century when a successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid? Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards were worth the risk . . . . Increased globalisation has done more to encourage piracy than suppress it. European colonialism weakened delicate balances of power, leading to an influx of opportunists on the high seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly becomes clear that in those parts of the world that have not profited from globalization and modernisation, and where abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root causes of piracy are still the same as they were a couple of hundred years ago.” . . . Modern pirate prevention has failed. After the French yacht Le Gonant was ransomed for $2 million in 2008, opportunists from all over Somalia flocked to the coast for a piece of the action. . . . A consistent rule, even today, is there are never enough warships to patrol pirate-infested waters. Such ships are costly and only solve the problem temporarily; Somali piracy is bound to return as soon as the warships are withdrawn. Robot shipping, eliminating hostages, has been proposed as a possible solution; but as Lehr points out, this will only make pirates switch their targets to smaller carriers unable to afford the technology. His advice isn’t new. Proposals to end illegal fishing are often advanced but they are difficult to enforce. Investment in local welfare put a halt to Malaysian piracy in the 1970s, but was dependent on money somehow filtering through a corrupt bureaucracy to the poor on the periphery. Diplomatic initiatives against piracy are plagued by mutual distrust: the Russians execute pirates, while the EU and US are reluctant to capture them for fear they’ll claim asylum.

“A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry . . .” From this statement we can infer that the author believes that:

  • AVasco da Gama and the East India Company laid the ground for modern piracy.
  • BLehr does not assign adequate blame to empire builders for their past deeds.
  • Cthe disorganised piracy of today is no match for the organised piracy of the past.
  • Dcolonialism should be considered an organised form of piracy.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D By saying a fuller history would add conquistadors, da Gama, and the EIC, yet Lehr stays with “disorganised small fry,” the reviewer treats those imperial ventures as the organised counterpart—i.e., colonialism as organised piracy. Why the others fail: • A — No claim that those actors “laid the ground for modern piracy.” • B — The point is genre/scope of Lehr’s book, not insufficient moral blame-assigning. • C — Compares organisation of past empire to small-fry pirates, not today’s disorder vs past organisation as a strength ranking.
Q4Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

174 incidents of piracy were reported to the International Maritime Bureau last year, with Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal. For Dr. Peter Lehr, an expert on modern-day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a source of instruction rather than entertainment, piracy past offering lessons for piracy present. . . . But . . . where does piracy begin or end? According to St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power and wealth at sea, the difference between an emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By this logic, European empire-builders were the most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making comparisons with the renegades of today possible. The main motive for piracy has always been a combination of need and greed. Why toil away as a starving peasant in the 16th century when a successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid? Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards were worth the risk . . . . Increased globalisation has done more to encourage piracy than suppress it. European colonialism weakened delicate balances of power, leading to an influx of opportunists on the high seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly becomes clear that in those parts of the world that have not profited from globalization and modernisation, and where abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root causes of piracy are still the same as they were a couple of hundred years ago.” . . . Modern pirate prevention has failed. After the French yacht Le Gonant was ransomed for $2 million in 2008, opportunists from all over Somalia flocked to the coast for a piece of the action. . . . A consistent rule, even today, is there are never enough warships to patrol pirate-infested waters. Such ships are costly and only solve the problem temporarily; Somali piracy is bound to return as soon as the warships are withdrawn. Robot shipping, eliminating hostages, has been proposed as a possible solution; but as Lehr points out, this will only make pirates switch their targets to smaller carriers unable to afford the technology. His advice isn’t new. Proposals to end illegal fishing are often advanced but they are difficult to enforce. Investment in local welfare put a halt to Malaysian piracy in the 1970s, but was dependent on money somehow filtering through a corrupt bureaucracy to the poor on the periphery. Diplomatic initiatives against piracy are plagued by mutual distrust: the Russians execute pirates, while the EU and US are reluctant to capture them for fear they’ll claim asylum.

We can deduce that the author believes that piracy can best be controlled in the longrun:

  • Athrough the extensive deployment of technology to track ships and cargo
  • Bthrough lucrative welfare schemes to improve the lives of people in affected regions.
  • Cif we eliminate poverty and income disparities in affected regions.Correct answer
  • Dthrough international cooperation in enforcing stringent deterrents

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C Long-run control, for the author, means removing the poverty and inequality that make piracy the attractive livelihood—structural economic change in affected regions, not only gadgets or deterrence. Why the others fail: • A — Tracking tech may help tactically; it is not cast as the durable cure. • B — “Lucrative welfare schemes” is narrower and more programmatic than the poverty/disparity diagnosis. • D — Mutual distrust already hobbles enforcement; deterrents alone are not the long-run answer given.
Q5Reading Comprehension·Inference

In a low-carbon world, renewable energy technologies are hot business. For investors looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar panels, among other technologies, seem a straightforward choice. But renewables need to be further scrutinized before being championed as forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both the direct and indirect impacts of renewable energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-smart future does not intensify social and environmental harm. As renewable energy production requires land, water, and labor, among other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the environment. Hydropower projects, for instance, have led to community dispossession and exclusion . . .Renewable energy supply chains are also intertwined with mining, and their technologies contribute to growing levels of electronic waste . . . Furthermore, although renewable energy can be produced and distributed through small-scale, local systems, such an approach might not generate the high returns on investment needed to attract capital. Although an emerging sector, renewables are enmeshed in long-standing resource extraction through their dependence on minerals and metals . . . Scholars document the negative consequences of mining . . . even for mining operations that commit to socially responsible practices: “many of the world’s largest reservoirs of minerals like cobalt, copper, lithium,and rare earth minerals”—the ones needed for renewable technologies—“are found in fragile states and under communities of marginalized peoples in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. ”Since the demand for metals and minerals will increase substantially in a renewablepowered future . . . this intensification could exacerbate the existing consequences of extractive activities. Among the connections between climate change and waste, O’Neill . . . highlights that “devices developed to reduce our carbon footprint, such as lithium batteries for hybrid and electric cars or solar panels, become potentially dangerous electronic waste at the end of their productive life.” The disposal of toxic waste has long perpetuated social injustice through the flows of waste to the Global South and to marginalized communities in the Global North . .. While renewable energy is a more recent addition to financial portfolios, investments in the sector must be considered in light of our understanding of capital accumulation. As agricultural finance reveals, the concentration of control of corporate activity facilitates profit generation. For some climate activists, the promise of renewables rests on their ability not only to reduce emissions but also to provide distributed, democratized access to energy . . .But Burke and Stephens . . . caution that “renewable energy systems offer a possibility but nota certainty for more democratic energy futures.” Small-scale, distributed forms of energy are only highly profitable to institutional investors if control is consolidated somewhere in the financial chain. Renewable energy can be produced at the household or neighborhood level. However, such small-scale, localized production is unlikely to generate high returns for investors. For financial growth to be sustained and expanded by the renewable sector, production and trade in renewable energy technologies will need to be highly concentrated, and large asset management firms will likely drive those developments.

Which one of the following statements, if false, could be seen as best supporting the arguments in the passage?

  • ARenewable energy systems have little or no environmental impact.Correct answer
  • BRenewable energy systems are as expensive as non-renewable energy systems.
  • CRenewable energy systems are not as profitable as non-renewable energy systems.
  • DThe production and distribution of renewable energy through small-scale, local systems is not economically sustainable.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A If-false support: the passage insists renewables carry social and environmental costs (land, mining, e-waste, dispossession). Calling “little or no environmental impact” *false* affirms those costs—best supporting the argument. Why the others fail: • B — Relative expense is not the essay’s load-bearing claim; falsifying it does little for the harm/scrutiny thesis. • C — Profitability gaps are discussed for small-scale systems, but falsifying a general “less profitable” claim is not the strongest support. • D — The passage already leans toward small-scale systems being *less* investor-attractive; treating D as false would fight that caution.
Q6Reading Comprehension·Inference

In a low-carbon world, renewable energy technologies are hot business. For investors looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar panels, among other technologies, seem a straightforward choice. But renewables need to be further scrutinized before being championed as forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both the direct and indirect impacts of renewable energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-smart future does not intensify social and environmental harm. As renewable energy production requires land, water, and labor, among other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the environment. Hydropower projects, for instance, have led to community dispossession and exclusion . . .Renewable energy supply chains are also intertwined with mining, and their technologies contribute to growing levels of electronic waste . . . Furthermore, although renewable energy can be produced and distributed through small-scale, local systems, such an approach might not generate the high returns on investment needed to attract capital. Although an emerging sector, renewables are enmeshed in long-standing resource extraction through their dependence on minerals and metals . . . Scholars document the negative consequences of mining . . . even for mining operations that commit to socially responsible practices: “many of the world’s largest reservoirs of minerals like cobalt, copper, lithium,and rare earth minerals”—the ones needed for renewable technologies—“are found in fragile states and under communities of marginalized peoples in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. ”Since the demand for metals and minerals will increase substantially in a renewablepowered future . . . this intensification could exacerbate the existing consequences of extractive activities. Among the connections between climate change and waste, O’Neill . . . highlights that “devices developed to reduce our carbon footprint, such as lithium batteries for hybrid and electric cars or solar panels, become potentially dangerous electronic waste at the end of their productive life.” The disposal of toxic waste has long perpetuated social injustice through the flows of waste to the Global South and to marginalized communities in the Global North . .. While renewable energy is a more recent addition to financial portfolios, investments in the sector must be considered in light of our understanding of capital accumulation. As agricultural finance reveals, the concentration of control of corporate activity facilitates profit generation. For some climate activists, the promise of renewables rests on their ability not only to reduce emissions but also to provide distributed, democratized access to energy . . .But Burke and Stephens . . . caution that “renewable energy systems offer a possibility but nota certainty for more democratic energy futures.” Small-scale, distributed forms of energy are only highly profitable to institutional investors if control is consolidated somewhere in the financial chain. Renewable energy can be produced at the household or neighborhood level. However, such small-scale, localized production is unlikely to generate high returns for investors. For financial growth to be sustained and expanded by the renewable sector, production and trade in renewable energy technologies will need to be highly concentrated, and large asset management firms will likely drive those developments.

All of the following statements, if true, could be seen as supporting the arguments in the passage, EXCEPT:

  • AOne reason for the perpetuation of social injustice lies in the problem of the disposal of toxic waste.
  • BMarginalised people in Africa, Asia and Latin America have often been the main sufferers of corporate mineral extraction projects.
  • CThe example of agricultural finance helps us to see how to concentrate corporate activity in the renewable energy sector.
  • DThe possible negative impacts of renewable energyCorrect answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D EXCEPT: A–C restate toxic-waste injustice, marginalised communities bearing extraction costs, and agricultural finance as a model for concentrating capital in renewables. D’s claim that negative impacts must be studied *before* renewables can be offered as investments does not support the passage—the sector is already financed while the author demands scrutiny of harms already underway, not a study-first investment gate. Why the others fail: • A — Matches the toxic-waste → injustice linkage. • B — Echoes mining harms to marginalised peoples in Africa/Asia/Latin America. • C — Agricultural finance is explicitly the analogy for concentrating corporate renewables activity.
Q7Reading Comprehension·Inference

In a low-carbon world, renewable energy technologies are hot business. For investors looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar panels, among other technologies, seem a straightforward choice. But renewables need to be further scrutinized before being championed as forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both the direct and indirect impacts of renewable energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-smart future does not intensify social and environmental harm. As renewable energy production requires land, water, and labor, among other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the environment. Hydropower projects, for instance, have led to community dispossession and exclusion . . .Renewable energy supply chains are also intertwined with mining, and their technologies contribute to growing levels of electronic waste . . . Furthermore, although renewable energy can be produced and distributed through small-scale, local systems, such an approach might not generate the high returns on investment needed to attract capital. Although an emerging sector, renewables are enmeshed in long-standing resource extraction through their dependence on minerals and metals . . . Scholars document the negative consequences of mining . . . even for mining operations that commit to socially responsible practices: “many of the world’s largest reservoirs of minerals like cobalt, copper, lithium,and rare earth minerals”—the ones needed for renewable technologies—“are found in fragile states and under communities of marginalized peoples in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. ”Since the demand for metals and minerals will increase substantially in a renewablepowered future . . . this intensification could exacerbate the existing consequences of extractive activities. Among the connections between climate change and waste, O’Neill . . . highlights that “devices developed to reduce our carbon footprint, such as lithium batteries for hybrid and electric cars or solar panels, become potentially dangerous electronic waste at the end of their productive life.” The disposal of toxic waste has long perpetuated social injustice through the flows of waste to the Global South and to marginalized communities in the Global North . .. While renewable energy is a more recent addition to financial portfolios, investments in the sector must be considered in light of our understanding of capital accumulation. As agricultural finance reveals, the concentration of control of corporate activity facilitates profit generation. For some climate activists, the promise of renewables rests on their ability not only to reduce emissions but also to provide distributed, democratized access to energy . . .But Burke and Stephens . . . caution that “renewable energy systems offer a possibility but nota certainty for more democratic energy futures.” Small-scale, distributed forms of energy are only highly profitable to institutional investors if control is consolidated somewhere in the financial chain. Renewable energy can be produced at the household or neighborhood level. However, such small-scale, localized production is unlikely to generate high returns for investors. For financial growth to be sustained and expanded by the renewable sector, production and trade in renewable energy technologies will need to be highly concentrated, and large asset management firms will likely drive those developments.

Which one of the following statements, if true, could be an accurate inference from the first paragraph of the passage?

  • AThe author has reservations about the consequences of non-renewable energy systems.
  • BThe author does not think renewable energy systems can be as efficient as non-renewable energy systems
  • CThe author’s only reservation is about the profitability of renewable energy systems.
  • DThe author has reservations about the consequences of renewable energy systems.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D Paragraph one warns that championing renewables without examining direct/indirect impacts may intensify social and environmental harm—so the author is reserved about renewable systems’ *consequences*. Why the others fail: • A — Opening reservations target renewables’ hidden costs, not primarily non-renewables. • B — Efficiency vs fossil systems is not the stated worry. • C — Profitability is one later thread; it is not the “only” reservation, and para 1 is about harm.
Q8Reading Comprehension·Inference

In a low-carbon world, renewable energy technologies are hot business. For investors looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar panels, among other technologies, seem a straightforward choice. But renewables need to be further scrutinized before being championed as forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both the direct and indirect impacts of renewable energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-smart future does not intensify social and environmental harm. As renewable energy production requires land, water, and labor, among other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the environment. Hydropower projects, for instance, have led to community dispossession and exclusion . . .Renewable energy supply chains are also intertwined with mining, and their technologies contribute to growing levels of electronic waste . . . Furthermore, although renewable energy can be produced and distributed through small-scale, local systems, such an approach might not generate the high returns on investment needed to attract capital. Although an emerging sector, renewables are enmeshed in long-standing resource extraction through their dependence on minerals and metals . . . Scholars document the negative consequences of mining . . . even for mining operations that commit to socially responsible practices: “many of the world’s largest reservoirs of minerals like cobalt, copper, lithium,and rare earth minerals”—the ones needed for renewable technologies—“are found in fragile states and under communities of marginalized peoples in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. ”Since the demand for metals and minerals will increase substantially in a renewablepowered future . . . this intensification could exacerbate the existing consequences of extractive activities. Among the connections between climate change and waste, O’Neill . . . highlights that “devices developed to reduce our carbon footprint, such as lithium batteries for hybrid and electric cars or solar panels, become potentially dangerous electronic waste at the end of their productive life.” The disposal of toxic waste has long perpetuated social injustice through the flows of waste to the Global South and to marginalized communities in the Global North . .. While renewable energy is a more recent addition to financial portfolios, investments in the sector must be considered in light of our understanding of capital accumulation. As agricultural finance reveals, the concentration of control of corporate activity facilitates profit generation. For some climate activists, the promise of renewables rests on their ability not only to reduce emissions but also to provide distributed, democratized access to energy . . .But Burke and Stephens . . . caution that “renewable energy systems offer a possibility but nota certainty for more democratic energy futures.” Small-scale, distributed forms of energy are only highly profitable to institutional investors if control is consolidated somewhere in the financial chain. Renewable energy can be produced at the household or neighborhood level. However, such small-scale, localized production is unlikely to generate high returns for investors. For financial growth to be sustained and expanded by the renewable sector, production and trade in renewable energy technologies will need to be highly concentrated, and large asset management firms will likely drive those developments.

Which one of the following statements best captures the main argument of the last paragraph of the passage?

  • ARenewable energy systems are not democratic unless they are corporate-controlled.
  • BThe development of the renewable energy sector is a double-edged sword.Correct answer
  • CRenewable energy produced at the household or neighbourhood level is more efficient than mass-produced forms of energy.
  • DMost forms of renewable energy are not profitable investments for institutional investors.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B The close: renewables could democratise energy yet, for investor-scale returns, tend toward concentrated corporate control—promise and peril together. “Double-edged sword” captures that. Why the others fail: • A — Reverses the logic: corporate control is what *threatens* democratic potential, not what defines it. • C — Local production is not argued to be more *efficient*; the issue is returns/capital. • D — Institutional investors may still profit if control consolidates; “most forms unprofitable” overshoots.
Q9Reading Comprehension·Inference

In a low-carbon world, renewable energy technologies are hot business. For investors looking to redirect funds, wind turbines and solar panels, among other technologies, seem a straightforward choice. But renewables need to be further scrutinized before being championed as forging a path toward a low-carbon future. Both the direct and indirect impacts of renewable energy must be examined to ensure that a climate-smart future does not intensify social and environmental harm. As renewable energy production requires land, water, and labor, among other inputs, it imposes costs on people and the environment. Hydropower projects, for instance, have led to community dispossession and exclusion . . .Renewable energy supply chains are also intertwined with mining, and their technologies contribute to growing levels of electronic waste . . . Furthermore, although renewable energy can be produced and distributed through small-scale, local systems, such an approach might not generate the high returns on investment needed to attract capital. Although an emerging sector, renewables are enmeshed in long-standing resource extraction through their dependence on minerals and metals . . . Scholars document the negative consequences of mining . . . even for mining operations that commit to socially responsible practices: “many of the world’s largest reservoirs of minerals like cobalt, copper, lithium,and rare earth minerals”—the ones needed for renewable technologies—“are found in fragile states and under communities of marginalized peoples in Africa, Asia, and Latin America. ”Since the demand for metals and minerals will increase substantially in a renewablepowered future . . . this intensification could exacerbate the existing consequences of extractive activities. Among the connections between climate change and waste, O’Neill . . . highlights that “devices developed to reduce our carbon footprint, such as lithium batteries for hybrid and electric cars or solar panels, become potentially dangerous electronic waste at the end of their productive life.” The disposal of toxic waste has long perpetuated social injustice through the flows of waste to the Global South and to marginalized communities in the Global North . .. While renewable energy is a more recent addition to financial portfolios, investments in the sector must be considered in light of our understanding of capital accumulation. As agricultural finance reveals, the concentration of control of corporate activity facilitates profit generation. For some climate activists, the promise of renewables rests on their ability not only to reduce emissions but also to provide distributed, democratized access to energy . . .But Burke and Stephens . . . caution that “renewable energy systems offer a possibility but nota certainty for more democratic energy futures.” Small-scale, distributed forms of energy are only highly profitable to institutional investors if control is consolidated somewhere in the financial chain. Renewable energy can be produced at the household or neighborhood level. However, such small-scale, localized production is unlikely to generate high returns for investors. For financial growth to be sustained and expanded by the renewable sector, production and trade in renewable energy technologies will need to be highly concentrated, and large asset management firms will likely drive those developments.

Based on the passage, we can infer that the author would be most supportive of which one of the following practices?

  • AThe study of the coexistence of marginalised people with their environments.
  • BEncouragement for the development of more environment-friendly carbon-based fuels.
  • CMore stringent global policies and regulations to ensure a more just system of toxic waste disposal.Correct answer
  • DThe localised, small-scale development of renewable energy systems

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C Given the stress on toxic waste flows punishing the Global South and marginalised communities, tougher global rules for just disposal align with the author’s justice frame. Why the others fail: • A — Studying coexistence is mild and not the policy thrust. • B — Friendlier carbon fuels contradict the renewable/low-carbon scrutiny agenda. • D — Local small-scale systems are sympathetically noted but flagged as unlikely to draw capital; not what the author most pushes.
Q10Reading Comprehension·Inference

The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: [first, that visual] culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. [And second, that the]study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing (orgazes) that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work. . . . Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and nonart.. . . They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality. . .. Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works form any different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements. Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on life worlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world. . . . Important methodological implications follow: ethnography and reception studies become productive forms of gathering information, since these move beyond the image as a closed and fixed meaning-event. .. . Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation. Vision is a socially and a biologically constructed operation, depending on the design of the human body and how it engages the interpretive devices developed by a culture in order to see intelligibly. . . . Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience. Finally, the scholar of visual culture seeks to regard images as evidence for explanation, not as epiphenomena. “No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo.”

In light of the passage, which one of the following interpretations of this sentence is the most accurate?

  • ASocially existing beings cannot be analysed, unlike the art of Michelangelo or Leonardo which can.
  • BMichelangelo or Leonardo cannot be subjected to social analysis because of their genius.
  • CSocial analytical accounts of people like Michelangelo or Leonardo cannot explain their genius.Correct answer
  • DNo analyses exist of Michelangelo’s or Leonardo’s social accounts

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C The sentence denies that social analysis can *fully account for* Michelangelo or Leonardo—genius exceeds what social explanation exhausts. C states that limit cleanly. Why the others fail: • A — Nonsense: people can be analysed; the claim is incompleteness for genius, not impossibility for beings. • B — Not “cannot be subjected” to analysis—analysis just cannot fully explain them. • D — Denies existence of analyses; the quote assumes analysis yet finds it insufficient.
Q11Reading Comprehension·Inference

The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: [first, that visual] culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. [And second, that the]study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing (orgazes) that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work. . . . Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and nonart.. . . They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality. . .. Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works form any different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements. Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on life worlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world. . . . Important methodological implications follow: ethnography and reception studies become productive forms of gathering information, since these move beyond the image as a closed and fixed meaning-event. .. . Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation. Vision is a socially and a biologically constructed operation, depending on the design of the human body and how it engages the interpretive devices developed by a culture in order to see intelligibly. . . . Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience. Finally, the scholar of visual culture seeks to regard images as evidence for explanation, not as epiphenomena. “No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo.”

All of the following statements may be considered valid inferences from the passage, EXCEPT:

  • Avisual culture is not just about how we see, but also about how our visual practice scan impact and change the world.
  • Bartifacts are meaningful precisely because they help to construct the meanings of the world for us.
  • Cunderstanding the structures of perception is an important part of understanding how visual cultures work.
  • Dstudying visual culture requires institutional structures without which the structures of perception cannot be analysedCorrect answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D EXCEPT: visual culture involves seeing practices that shape worlds, artifacts that construct meaning, and structures of perception. Needing particular *institutional* structures to analyse perception is not a passage inference. Why the others fail: • A — Seeing practices changing the world is central. • B — Artifacts’ world-making meaningfulness is affirmed. • C — Structures of perception are explicitly part of the visual-culture brief.
Q12Reading Comprehension·Inference

The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: [first, that visual] culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. [And second, that the]study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing (orgazes) that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work. . . . Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and nonart.. . . They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality. . .. Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works form any different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements. Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on life worlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world. . . . Important methodological implications follow: ethnography and reception studies become productive forms of gathering information, since these move beyond the image as a closed and fixed meaning-event. .. . Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation. Vision is a socially and a biologically constructed operation, depending on the design of the human body and how it engages the interpretive devices developed by a culture in order to see intelligibly. . . . Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience. Finally, the scholar of visual culture seeks to regard images as evidence for explanation, not as epiphenomena. “No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo.”

“Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience.” In light of the passage, which one of the following statements best conveys the meaning of this sentence?

  • AImages are meaningful visual experiences when they have a foundation of covenants seeing them.
  • BSight becomes a meaningful visual experience because of covenants of meaningfulness that we establish with the images we see.Correct answer
  • CThe way we experience sight is through images operated on by meaningful covenants.
  • DSight as a meaningful visual experience is possible when there is a foundational condition established in images of covenants.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B “Covenants with images” are shared agreements that make seeing a meaningful visual experience—sight becomes intelligible through those image-pacts. B preserves that agent–image covenant idea. Why the others fail: • A — Scrambles subjects: images are not themselves experiences “when they have foundations of covenants seeing them.” • C — Makes “meaningful covenants” operators on images in a muddled causal order. • D — Locates covenants as conditions *in* images rather than agreements we hold with images.
Q13Reading Comprehension·Inference

The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: [first, that visual] culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. [And second, that the]study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing (orgazes) that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work. . . . Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and nonart.. . . They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality. . .. Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works form any different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements. Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on life worlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world. . . . Important methodological implications follow: ethnography and reception studies become productive forms of gathering information, since these move beyond the image as a closed and fixed meaning-event. .. . Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation. Vision is a socially and a biologically constructed operation, depending on the design of the human body and how it engages the interpretive devices developed by a culture in order to see intelligibly. . . . Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience. Finally, the scholar of visual culture seeks to regard images as evidence for explanation, not as epiphenomena. “No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo.”

Which set of keywords below most closely captures the arguments of the passage?

  • AImagery, Visual Practices, Life worlds, Structures of Perception.Correct answer
  • BVisual Construction of Reality, Work of Genius, Ethnography, Epiphenomena
  • CScholars, Social Analysis, Michelangelo and Leonardo, Interpretive Devices
  • DVisual Culture, Aesthetic Value, Lay Audience, Visual Experience.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A The essay’s spine: imagery and visual practices, life-worlds they constitute, and structures of perception. A’s keywords track that. Why the others fail: • B — Genius/ethnography/epiphenomena are peripheral examples, not the organising set. • C — Named artists and “interpretive devices” are illustrations, too narrow. • D — Aesthetic value and lay audience are not the passage’s primary triad.
Q14Reading Comprehension·Vocabulary in Context

The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: [first, that visual] culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. [And second, that the]study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing (orgazes) that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work. . . . Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and nonart.. . . They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality. . .. Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works form any different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements. Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on life worlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world. . . . Important methodological implications follow: ethnography and reception studies become productive forms of gathering information, since these move beyond the image as a closed and fixed meaning-event. .. . Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation. Vision is a socially and a biologically constructed operation, depending on the design of the human body and how it engages the interpretive devices developed by a culture in order to see intelligibly. . . . Seeing . . . operates on the foundation of covenants with images that establish the conditions for meaningful visual experience. Finally, the scholar of visual culture seeks to regard images as evidence for explanation, not as epiphenomena. “No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo.”

Which one of the following best describes the word “epiphenomena” in the last sentence of the passage?

  • APhenomena amenable to analysis.
  • BVisual phenomena of epic proportions.
  • COverarching collections of images
  • DPhenomena supplemental to the evidenceCorrect answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D Opposed to treating images as evidence for explanation, “epiphenomena” means secondary by-products—phenomena merely supplemental to the real evidence rather than evidence themselves. Why the others fail: • A — Amenability to analysis is not the contrast drawn. • B — “Epic” is a false etymology play. • C — Not about collections of images.
Q15Reading Comprehension·Application & Analogy

Aggression is any behavior that is directed toward injuring, harming, or inflicting pain on another living being or group of beings. Generally, the victim(s) of aggression must wish to avoid such behavior in order for it to be considered true aggression. Aggression is also categorized according to its ultimate intent. Hostile aggression is an aggressive act that results from anger, and is intended to inflict pain or injury because of that anger. Instrumental aggression is an aggressive act that is regarded as a means to an end other than pain or injury. For example, an enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject. The concept of aggression is very broad, and includes many categories of behavior (e.g., verbal aggression, street crime, child abuse, spouse abuse, group conflict, war, etc.). A number of theories and models of aggression have arisen to explain these diverse forms of behavior, and these theories/models tend to be categorized according to their specific focus. The most common system of categorization groups the various approaches to aggression into three separate areas, based upon the three key variables that are present whenever any aggressive act or set of acts is committed. The first variable is the aggressor him/herself. The second is the social situation or circumstance in which the aggressive act(s) occur. The third variable is the target or victim of aggression. Regarding theories and research on the aggressor, the fundamental focus is on the factors that lead an individual (or group) to commit aggressive acts. At the most basic level, some argue that aggressive urges and actions are the result of inborn, biological factors. Sigmund Freud (1930) proposed that all individuals are born with a death instinct that predisposes us toa variety of aggressive behaviors, including suicide (self-directed aggression) and mental illness (possibly due to an unhealthy or unnatural suppression of aggressive urges). Other influential perspectives supporting a biological basis for aggression conclude that humans evolved with an abnormally low neural inhibition of aggressive impulses (in comparison toother species), and that humans possess a powerful instinct for property accumulation and territorialism. It is proposed that this instinct accounts for hostile behaviors ranging from minor street crime to world wars. Hormonal factors also appear to play a significant role in fostering aggressive tendencies. For example, the hormone testosterone has been shown to increase aggressive behaviors when injected into animals. Men and women convicted of violent crimes also possess significantly higher levels of testosterone than men and women convicted of nonviolent crimes. Numerous studies comparing different age groups, racial/ethnic groups, and cultures also indicate that men, overall, are more likely to engage in a variety of aggressive behaviors (e.g., sexual assault, aggravated assault, etc.) than women. One explanation for higher levels of aggression in men is based on the assumption that, on average, men have higher levels of testosterone than women.

All of the following statements can be seen as logically implied by the arguments of the passage EXCEPT:

  • Aif the alleged aggressive act is not sought to be avoided, it cannot really be considered aggression
  • BFreud’s theory of aggression proposes that aggression results from the suppression of aggressive urges.
  • CFreudian theory of suicide as self-inflicted aggression implies that an aggressive act need not be sought to be avoided in order for it to be considered aggression.
  • Da common theory of aggression is that it is the result of an abnormally low neural regulation of testosterone.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D EXCEPT: implied claims include avoidance-seeking as part of defining aggression, Freud linking aggression to suppressed urges, and suicide-as-aggression showing the victim need not seek to avoid the act. D misstates the biology thread: the claim is low neural *inhibition of aggressive impulses*, not low neural regulation of *testosterone*. Why the others fail: • A — Follows the definitional stress on the target seeking to avoid harm. • B — Matches the Freudian suppression account as presented. • C — Self-inflicted aggression shows avoidance-by-victim is not always required.
Q16Reading Comprehension·Inference

Aggression is any behavior that is directed toward injuring, harming, or inflicting pain on another living being or group of beings. Generally, the victim(s) of aggression must wish to avoid such behavior in order for it to be considered true aggression. Aggression is also categorized according to its ultimate intent. Hostile aggression is an aggressive act that results from anger, and is intended to inflict pain or injury because of that anger. Instrumental aggression is an aggressive act that is regarded as a means to an end other than pain or injury. For example, an enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject. The concept of aggression is very broad, and includes many categories of behavior (e.g., verbal aggression, street crime, child abuse, spouse abuse, group conflict, war, etc.). A number of theories and models of aggression have arisen to explain these diverse forms of behavior, and these theories/models tend to be categorized according to their specific focus. The most common system of categorization groups the various approaches to aggression into three separate areas, based upon the three key variables that are present whenever any aggressive act or set of acts is committed. The first variable is the aggressor him/herself. The second is the social situation or circumstance in which the aggressive act(s) occur. The third variable is the target or victim of aggression. Regarding theories and research on the aggressor, the fundamental focus is on the factors that lead an individual (or group) to commit aggressive acts. At the most basic level, some argue that aggressive urges and actions are the result of inborn, biological factors. Sigmund Freud (1930) proposed that all individuals are born with a death instinct that predisposes us toa variety of aggressive behaviors, including suicide (self-directed aggression) and mental illness (possibly due to an unhealthy or unnatural suppression of aggressive urges). Other influential perspectives supporting a biological basis for aggression conclude that humans evolved with an abnormally low neural inhibition of aggressive impulses (in comparison toother species), and that humans possess a powerful instinct for property accumulation and territorialism. It is proposed that this instinct accounts for hostile behaviors ranging from minor street crime to world wars. Hormonal factors also appear to play a significant role in fostering aggressive tendencies. For example, the hormone testosterone has been shown to increase aggressive behaviors when injected into animals. Men and women convicted of violent crimes also possess significantly higher levels of testosterone than men and women convicted of nonviolent crimes. Numerous studies comparing different age groups, racial/ethnic groups, and cultures also indicate that men, overall, are more likely to engage in a variety of aggressive behaviors (e.g., sexual assault, aggravated assault, etc.) than women. One explanation for higher levels of aggression in men is based on the assumption that, on average, men have higher levels of testosterone than women.

The author identifies three essential factors according to which theories of aggression are most commonly categorized. Which of the following options is closest to the factors identified by the author?

  • AHostile – Instrumental – Hormonal
  • BExtreme – Moderate – Mild
  • CPsychologically – Sociologically – Medically.
  • DAggressor – Circumstances of aggression – VictimCorrect answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D Theories are commonly sorted by focus on the aggressor, the situational circumstances, or the victim—three loci of explanation. D restates that triad. Why the others fail: • A — Hostile/instrumental/hormonal mixes type and mechanism, not the author’s three-factor cut. • B — Intensity grades are not the categorising scheme. • C — Disciplinary labels are not how the author divides the field.
Q17Reading Comprehension·Application & Analogy

Aggression is any behavior that is directed toward injuring, harming, or inflicting pain on another living being or group of beings. Generally, the victim(s) of aggression must wish to avoid such behavior in order for it to be considered true aggression. Aggression is also categorized according to its ultimate intent. Hostile aggression is an aggressive act that results from anger, and is intended to inflict pain or injury because of that anger. Instrumental aggression is an aggressive act that is regarded as a means to an end other than pain or injury. For example, an enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject. The concept of aggression is very broad, and includes many categories of behavior (e.g., verbal aggression, street crime, child abuse, spouse abuse, group conflict, war, etc.). A number of theories and models of aggression have arisen to explain these diverse forms of behavior, and these theories/models tend to be categorized according to their specific focus. The most common system of categorization groups the various approaches to aggression into three separate areas, based upon the three key variables that are present whenever any aggressive act or set of acts is committed. The first variable is the aggressor him/herself. The second is the social situation or circumstance in which the aggressive act(s) occur. The third variable is the target or victim of aggression. Regarding theories and research on the aggressor, the fundamental focus is on the factors that lead an individual (or group) to commit aggressive acts. At the most basic level, some argue that aggressive urges and actions are the result of inborn, biological factors. Sigmund Freud (1930) proposed that all individuals are born with a death instinct that predisposes us toa variety of aggressive behaviors, including suicide (self-directed aggression) and mental illness (possibly due to an unhealthy or unnatural suppression of aggressive urges). Other influential perspectives supporting a biological basis for aggression conclude that humans evolved with an abnormally low neural inhibition of aggressive impulses (in comparison toother species), and that humans possess a powerful instinct for property accumulation and territorialism. It is proposed that this instinct accounts for hostile behaviors ranging from minor street crime to world wars. Hormonal factors also appear to play a significant role in fostering aggressive tendencies. For example, the hormone testosterone has been shown to increase aggressive behaviors when injected into animals. Men and women convicted of violent crimes also possess significantly higher levels of testosterone than men and women convicted of nonviolent crimes. Numerous studies comparing different age groups, racial/ethnic groups, and cultures also indicate that men, overall, are more likely to engage in a variety of aggressive behaviors (e.g., sexual assault, aggravated assault, etc.) than women. One explanation for higher levels of aggression in men is based on the assumption that, on average, men have higher levels of testosterone than women.

The author discusses all of the following arguments in the passage EXCEPT that:

  • Athe nature of aggression can vary depending on several factors, including intent.
  • Bseveral studies indicate that aggression may have roots in the biological condition of humanity.
  • Cmen in general are believed to be more hormonally driven to exhibit violence than women.
  • Daggression in most societies is kept under control through moderating the death instinct identified by Freud.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D EXCEPT: the author does *not* argue that societies mainly control aggression by moderating Freud’s death instinct. That social-control claim is absent. Why the others fail: • A — Intent and other factors shaping aggression’s nature are discussed. • B — Biological-root studies are surveyed. • C — Male/testosterone-linked higher aggression appears among biological accounts.
Q18Reading Comprehension·Inference

Aggression is any behavior that is directed toward injuring, harming, or inflicting pain on another living being or group of beings. Generally, the victim(s) of aggression must wish to avoid such behavior in order for it to be considered true aggression. Aggression is also categorized according to its ultimate intent. Hostile aggression is an aggressive act that results from anger, and is intended to inflict pain or injury because of that anger. Instrumental aggression is an aggressive act that is regarded as a means to an end other than pain or injury. For example, an enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject. The concept of aggression is very broad, and includes many categories of behavior (e.g., verbal aggression, street crime, child abuse, spouse abuse, group conflict, war, etc.). A number of theories and models of aggression have arisen to explain these diverse forms of behavior, and these theories/models tend to be categorized according to their specific focus. The most common system of categorization groups the various approaches to aggression into three separate areas, based upon the three key variables that are present whenever any aggressive act or set of acts is committed. The first variable is the aggressor him/herself. The second is the social situation or circumstance in which the aggressive act(s) occur. The third variable is the target or victim of aggression. Regarding theories and research on the aggressor, the fundamental focus is on the factors that lead an individual (or group) to commit aggressive acts. At the most basic level, some argue that aggressive urges and actions are the result of inborn, biological factors. Sigmund Freud (1930) proposed that all individuals are born with a death instinct that predisposes us toa variety of aggressive behaviors, including suicide (self-directed aggression) and mental illness (possibly due to an unhealthy or unnatural suppression of aggressive urges). Other influential perspectives supporting a biological basis for aggression conclude that humans evolved with an abnormally low neural inhibition of aggressive impulses (in comparison toother species), and that humans possess a powerful instinct for property accumulation and territorialism. It is proposed that this instinct accounts for hostile behaviors ranging from minor street crime to world wars. Hormonal factors also appear to play a significant role in fostering aggressive tendencies. For example, the hormone testosterone has been shown to increase aggressive behaviors when injected into animals. Men and women convicted of violent crimes also possess significantly higher levels of testosterone than men and women convicted of nonviolent crimes. Numerous studies comparing different age groups, racial/ethnic groups, and cultures also indicate that men, overall, are more likely to engage in a variety of aggressive behaviors (e.g., sexual assault, aggravated assault, etc.) than women. One explanation for higher levels of aggression in men is based on the assumption that, on average, men have higher levels of testosterone than women.

“An enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject.” Which one of the following best explicates the larger point being made by the author here?

  • AIn certain kinds of aggression, inflicting pain is not the objective, and is no more than a utilitarian means to achieve another end.Correct answer
  • BThe use of torture to extract information is most effective when the torturer is not emotionally involved in the torture.
  • CInformation revealed by subjecting an enemy combatant to torture is not always reliable because of the animosity involved.
  • DWhen an enemy combatant refuses to reveal information, the use of torture can sometimes involve real feelings of hostility.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A Torture for intelligence is instrumental aggression: pain is a means to information, not an end driven by anger. A states that utilitarian structure. Why the others fail: • B — Effectiveness when unemotional is not the point being explicated. • C — Reliability of tortured intel is not at issue here. • D — Allows hostility to creep in; the example stresses *lack* of animosity.
Q19Verbal Ability·Paragraph JumblesTITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

1. But the attention of the layman, not surprisingly, has been captured by the atom bomb, although there is at least a chance that it may never be used again. 2. Of all the changes introduced by man into the household of nature, controlled large-scale nuclear fission is undoubtedly the most dangerous and most profound. 3. The danger to humanity created by the so-called peaceful uses of atomic energy may, however, be much greater. 4. The resultant ionizing radiation has become the most serious agent of pollution of the environment and the greatest threat to man’s survival on earth.

Answer: 2413

Show explanation
Answer:2413 What to find. Order the nuclear-danger paragraph. Opener. 2 ranks controlled large-scale fission as man’s most dangerous change to nature’s household—broad claim that needs no prior sentence. Specification → public focus → twist. 4 names the mechanism: ionising radiation as worst pollution and survival threat. 1 notes the layman’s fixation on the atom bomb despite a chance it may never be used again. 3’s “however” then elevates *peaceful* atomic uses as potentially the greater danger—contrasting the bomb-focused attention in 1. Check. 2 → 4 establishes the hazard; 1 → 3 moves from popular fear to the essay’s sharper thesis. 3 cannot open (needs the contrastive “however”); 1 cannot precede 2 without losing the hierarchy claim. Conclusion. Order 2–4–1–3 → 2413.
Q20Verbal Ability·Odd Sentence OutTITA

Five jumbled sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence out and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

1. The victim’s trauma after assault rarely gets the attention that we lavish on the moment of damage that divided the survivor from a less encumbered past. 2. One thing we often do with narratives of sexual assault is sort their respective parties into different temporalities: it seems we are interested in perpetrators’ futures and victims’ pasts. 3. One result is that we don’t have much of a vocabulary for what happens in a victim’s life after the painful past has been excavated, even when our shared language gestures toward the future, as the term “survivor” does. 4. Even the most charitable questions asked about the victims seem to focus on the past, in pursuit of understanding or of corroboration of painful details. 5. As more and more stories of sexual assault have been made public in the last two years, the genre of their telling has exploded --- crimes have a tendency to become not just stories but genres.

Answer: 4

Show explanation
Answer:4 What to find. Odd-one-out on assault narratives and temporality. Chain that works. 5 frames the recent public boom of assault stories as a genre. 1 contrasts lavish attention on the assault *moment* with neglect of later trauma. 2 diagnoses a temporal split: interest in perpetrators’ futures vs victims’ pasts. 3 notes the missing vocabulary for a victim’s life *after* the past is excavated, despite the forward-looking word “survivor.” Order 5–1–2–3 moves genre → attention pattern → temporal bias → vocabulary gap. Why 4 is out. 4 restates that even charitable victim-questions focus on the past for corroboration. That largely duplicates 12’s past-focus point without advancing the genre → survivor-vocabulary argument; it is the weakest link and the keyed odd one. Conclusion. Odd sentence = 4.
Q21Verbal Ability·Paragraph JumblesTITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

1. It also has four movable auxiliary telescopes 1.8 m in diameter. 2. Completed in 2006, the Very Large Telescope (VLT) has four reflecting telescopes,8.2 m in diameter that can observe objects 4 billion times weaker than can normally be seen with the naked eye. 3. This configuration enables one to distinguish an astronaut on the Moon. 4. When these are combined with the large telescopes, they produce what is called interferometry: a simulation of the power of a mirror 16 m in diameter and the resolution of a telescope of 200 m.

Answer: 2143

Show explanation
Answer:2143 What to find. Sequence the VLT description. Opener. 2 introduces the completed VLT: four 8.2 m reflectors and extreme sensitivity. This is the only self-contained naming sentence. Add-ons. 1’s “It also has…” needs the VLT antecedent from 2, adding four movable 1.8 m auxiliaries. 4 explains combining auxiliaries with the large scopes to produce interferometry (16 m-class collecting power, 200 m-class resolution). 3 illustrates that resolution—“distinguish an astronaut on the Moon”—so it must follow the interferometry claim. Check. 2 → 1 → 4 → 3. Placing 3 before 4 asserts the Moon feat before the configuration that enables it. Conclusion. Order 2–1–4–3 → 2143.
Q22Verbal Ability·Paragraph JumblesTITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

1. While you might think that you see or are aware of all the changes that happen in your immediate environment, there is simply too much information for your brain to fully process everything. 2. Psychologists use the term ‘change blindness’ to describe this tendency of people to be blind to changes though they are in the immediate environment. 3. It cannot be aware of every single thing that happens in the world around you. 4. Sometimes big shifts happen in front of your eyes and you are not at all aware of these changes.

Answer: 1342

Show explanation
Answer:1342 What to find. Build the change-blindness paragraph. Opener. 1 sets the paradox: you think you notice all local changes, but information overload prevents full processing. Continuation. 3’s “It cannot…” continues the brain’s limitation from 1 (pronoun = brain / awareness system). 4 gives concrete instances—big shifts unnoticed in front of your eyes. 2 finally names the phenomenon psychologists call “change blindness,” which labels the tendency just described. Check. Definition-last is natural here: describe the failure mode, then baptise it. Opening with 2 would name the term before any illustration; 3 before 1 leaves “It” without an antecedent. Conclusion. Order 1–3–4–2 → 1342.
Q23Verbal Ability·Paragraph Summary

All humans make decisions based on one or a combination of two factors. This is either intuition or information. Decisions made through intuition are usually fast, people don’t even think about the problem. It is quite philosophical, meaning that someone who made a decision based on intuition will have difficulty explaining the reasoning behind it. The decision-maker would often utilize her senses in drawing conclusions, which again is based on some experience in the field of study. On the other side of the spectrum, we have decisions made based on information. These decisions are rational — it is based on facts and figures, which unfortunately also means that it can be quite slow. The decision-maker would frequently use reports, analyses, and indicators to form her conclusion. This methodology results in accurate, quantifiable decisions, meaning that a person can clearly explain the rationale behind it.

  • AWhile decisions based on intuition can be made fast, the reasons that led to these cannot be spelt out.
  • BIt is better to make decisions based on information because it is more accurate, and the rationale behind it can be explained.
  • CDecisions based on intuition and information result in differential speed and ability to provide a rationale.Correct answer
  • DWe make decisions based on intuition or information on the basis of the time available.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C The paragraph contrasts intuition (fast, hard to justify) with information (slower, explicable, quantifiable). C summarises that dual difference in speed and rationale without ranking one as “better.” Why the others fail: • A — True of intuition but ignores the information half of the comparison. • B — Injects a normative “better” the text does not assert. • D — Time available is not given as the selector between modes.
Q24Verbal Ability·Paragraph Summary

With the Treaty of Westphalia, the papacy had been confined to ecclesiastical functions, and the doctrine of sovereign equality reigned. What political theory could then explain the origin and justify the functions of secular political order? In his Leviathan, published in 1651, three years after the Peace of Westphalia, Thomas Hobbes provided such a theory. He imagined a “state of nature” in the past when the absence of authority produced a “war of all against all.” To escape such intolerable insecurity, he theorized, people delivered their rights to a sovereign power in return forthe sovereign’s provision of security for all within the state’s border. The sovereign state’s monopoly on power was established as the only way to overcome the perpetual fear of violent death and war.

  • AThomas Hobbes theorized that sovereign states emerged out of people’s voluntary desire to overcome the sense of insecurity and establish the doctrine of sovereign equality.
  • BThomas Hobbes theorized the emergence of sovereign states as a form of transactional governance to limit the power of the papacy.
  • CThomas Hobbes theorized the voluntary surrender of rights by people as essential for emergence of sovereign states.
  • DThomas Hobbes theorized the emergence of sovereign states based on a transactional relationship between people and sovereign state that was necessitated by a sense of insecurity of the people.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D Hobbes: intolerable insecurity in the war of all against all leads people to trade rights to a sovereign for protection—a transactional bargain born of insecurity. D captures both legs. Why the others fail: • A — Mixes in “sovereign equality” (Westphalian backdrop) as if it were Hobbes’s product of the bargain. • B — Purpose is not limiting the papacy; that confinement is historical setting. • C — Voluntary surrender is necessary in the story but omits the insecurity-driven transactional frame that defines the theory here.
Q25Verbal Ability·Odd Sentence OutTITA

Five jumbled sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence out and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

1. You can observe the truth of this in every e-business model ever constructed: monopolise and protect data. 2. Economists and technologists believe that a new kind of capitalism is being created - different from industrial capitalism as was merchant capitalism. 3. In 1962, Kenneth Arrow, the guru of mainstream economics, said that in a free market economy the purpose of inventing things is to create intellectual property rights. 4. There is, alongside the world of monopolized information and surveillance, a different dynamic growing up: information as a social good, incapable of being owned or exploited or priced. 5. Yet information is abundant. Information goods are freely replicable. Once a thing is made, it can be copied and pasted infinitely.

Answer: 2

Show explanation
Answer:2 What to find. Odd-one-out on information, IP, and monopoly. Chain that works. 5 asserts information’s abundance and infinite replicability. 3 cites Arrow: in a free market, inventing aims at intellectual-property rights. 1 observes that e-business models monopolise and protect data. 4 contrasts a rising counter-dynamic—information as a social good that resists ownership/pricing. Flow 5–3–1–4: abundance → IP logic → monopoly practice → commons alternative. Why 2 is out. 2 claims economists/technologists believe a *new kind of capitalism* is being created (vs industrial/merchant capitalism). That macro-periodisation is a different thesis; it does not hook into the abundance–IP–monopoly–commons chain. Conclusion. Odd sentence = 2.
Q26Verbal Ability·Paragraph Summary

The rural-urban continuum and the heterogeneity of urban settings pose an obvious challenge to identifying urban areas and measuring urbanization rates in a consistent way within and across countries. An objective methodology for distinguishing between urban and rural areas that is based on one or two metrics with fixed thresholds may not adequately capture the wide diversity of places. A richer combination of criteria would better describe the multifaceted nature of a city’s function and its environment, but the joint interpretation of these criteria may require an element of human judgment.

  • AThe difficulty of accurately identifying urban areas means that we need to create a rich combination of criteria that can be applied to all urban areas.
  • BWith the diversity of urban landscapes, measurable criteria for defining urban areas may need to be supplemented with human judgement.Correct answer
  • CCurrent methodologies used to define urban and rural areas are no longer relevant to our being able to study trends in urbanisation.
  • DDistinguishing between urban and rural areas might call for some judgement on the objective methodology being used to define a city’s functions.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B Urban diversity means fixed one-or-two-metric thresholds under-describe places; richer criteria help but may still need human judgement to interpret jointly. B is the precis. Why the others fail: • A — “Applied to all urban areas” overclaims a universal checklist the text softens with judgement. • C — Methods are challenged as incomplete, not declared irrelevant to studying urbanisation. • D — Judgement is needed to interpret multiple criteria, not to judge the methodology’s definition of city functions as such.

DILR(24 questions)

Q27Logical Reasoning·Matrix ArrangementsTITA

Twenty five coloured beads are to be arranged in a grid comprising of five rows and five columns. Each cell in the grid must contain exactly one bead. Each bead is coloured either Red, Blue or Green. While arranging the beads along any of the five rows or along any of the five columns, the rules given below are to be followed: 1. Two adjacent beads along the same row or column are always of different colours. 2. There is at least one Green bead between any two Blue beads along the same row or column. 3. There is at least one Blue and at least one Green bead between any two Red beads along the same row or column. Every unique, complete arrangement of twenty five beads is called a configuration. The total number of possible configurations using beads of only two colors is:

Answer: 2

Show explanation
Answer:2 Setup. 5×5 grid; each cell R, B or G. On every row and column: (1) adjacent cells different colours; (2) ≥1 Green between any two Blues; (3) ≥1 Blue and ≥1 Green between any two Reds. This Q. Two-colour only. R with anything fails Rule 3 (the missing third colour cannot sit between two Reds). Only B+G remains. Adjacent-different ⇒ B/G alternating on every line ⇒ checkerboard. Two corner-colour choices ⇒ 2 configurations.
Q28Logical Reasoning·Matrix ArrangementsTITA

Twenty five coloured beads are to be arranged in a grid comprising of five rows and five columns. Each cell in the grid must contain exactly one bead. Each bead is coloured either Red, Blue or Green. While arranging the beads along any of the five rows or along any of the five columns, the rules given below are to be followed: 1. Two adjacent beads along the same row or column are always of different colours. 2. There is at least one Green bead between any two Blue beads along the same row or column. 3. There is at least one Blue and at least one Green bead between any two Red beads along the same row or column.

Every unique, complete arrangement of twenty five beads is called a configuration. What is the maximum possible number of Red beads that can appear in any configuration?

Answer: 9

Show explanation
Answer:9 Setup. 5×5 grid; each cell R, B or G. On every row and column: (1) adjacent cells different colours; (2) ≥1 Green between any two Blues; (3) ≥1 Blue and ≥1 Green between any two Reds. This Q. Rule 3 ⇒ in any 5-cell line, Reds occupy at most two positions (e.g. ends), with the three middle cells supplying both B and G. Maximising over the grid without row/column conflicts yields at most 9 Reds (three mutually compatible “2-Red” lines). Ten Reds always overload some line.
Q29Logical Reasoning·Matrix ArrangementsTITA

Twenty five coloured beads are to be arranged in a grid comprising of five rows and five columns. Each cell in the grid must contain exactly one bead. Each bead is coloured either Red, Blue or Green. While arranging the beads along any of the five rows or along any of the five columns, the rules given below are to be followed: 1. Two adjacent beads along the same row or column are always of different colours. 2. There is at least one Green bead between any two Blue beads along the same row or column. 3. There is at least one Blue and at least one Green bead between any two Red beads along the same row or column.

Every unique, complete arrangement of twenty five beads is called a configuration. What is the minimum number of Blue beads in any configuration?

Answer: 6

Show explanation
Answer:6 Setup. 5×5 grid; each cell R, B or G. On every row and column: (1) adjacent cells different colours; (2) ≥1 Green between any two Blues; (3) ≥1 Blue and ≥1 Green between any two Reds. This Q. Pure B/G checkerboards use 12 or 13 Blues. Introducing Reds can replace some Blues, but Rule 2 still demands Greens between leftover Blues, and Rule 3 injects Blues between Reds. The minimum Blue count over valid colourings is 6.
Q30Logical Reasoning·Matrix ArrangementsTITA

Twenty five coloured beads are to be arranged in a grid comprising of five rows and five columns. Each cell in the grid must contain exactly one bead. Each bead is coloured either Red, Blue or Green. While arranging the beads along any of the five rows or along any of the five columns, the rules given below are to be followed: 1. Two adjacent beads along the same row or column are always of different colours. 2. There is at least one Green bead between any two Blue beads along the same row or column. 3. There is at least one Blue and at least one Green bead between any two Red beads along the same row or column.

Every unique, complete arrangement of twenty five beads is called a configuration. Two Red beads have been placed in ‘second row, third column’ and ‘third row, second column’. How many more Red beads can be placed so as to maximise the number of Red beads used in the configuration?

Answer: 6

Show explanation
Answer:6 Setup. 5×5 grid; each cell R, B or G. On every row and column: (1) adjacent cells different colours; (2) ≥1 Green between any two Blues; (3) ≥1 Blue and ≥1 Green between any two Reds. This Q. Fixed Reds at (2,3) and (3,2). Those two already block several candidate Red cells in rows 2–3 and columns 2–3 (Rule 3 gaps). Extending to a maximum Red packing from this seed adds at most 6 further Reds.
Q31Logical Reasoning·Scheduling & Sequencing

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department. Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be Scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots. The following additional facts are also known. 1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots. 2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R. 3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am. 4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am. 5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot. 6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots. 7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

Which one of the following statements is true?

  • AThree seminars are scheduled in the first slot.
  • BTwo seminars are scheduled in the first slot.Correct answer
  • COnly one seminar is scheduled in the second slot.
  • DThree seminars are scheduled in the last slot.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Two seminars are scheduled in the first slot.) Setup. Eight seminars A–H. Departments: Economics 4, Sociology 3, Anthropology 1. Guides: P,R,T guide two each; Q,S guide one each; guide department = student department. Slots 9:009:3010:0010:30; ≤3 per slot; same-guide students in consecutive slots. Facts: Economics in every slot; only A at 10:00, guided by R; F Anthropology at 10:30; a Sociology seminar at 9:00; B and G (Sociology) share a slot with an Economics student guided by T; P guides B and C in the first two slots; A and G are in consecutive slots. Forced core. B,G + T’s Econ cannot be 10:00 ⇒ they are at 9:30 (only way to be consecutive with A at 10:00). P guides B ⇒ C is P’s other student in 9:00 ⇒ C is the 9:00 Sociology seminar, so Sociology = {{B,C,G}}. F is Anthropology ⇒ Economics = {{A,D,E,H}}. R (guides A) and T (guides an Econ at 9:30) are both Economics guides covering all four Econ students. G’s guide is the remaining Sociology singleton among {{Q,S}}; F’s guide is the other of {{Q,S}} (Anthropology). This Q. Slot 9:00 has C plus exactly one Economics student (Economics-every-slot) ⇒ two seminars. Slot 9:30 has three (B,G,T-Econ). Why other options fail. - A (Three seminars are scheduled in the first slot.): first slot has two, not three. - C (Only one seminar is scheduled in the second slot.): second slot has three seminars. - D (Three seminars are scheduled in the last slot.): last slot need not have three.
Q32Logical Reasoning·Scheduling & Sequencing

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department. Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be Scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots. The following additional facts are also known. 1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots. 2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R. 3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am. 4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am. 5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot. 6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots. 7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

Who all are NOT guiding any Economics students?

  • AP, Q and SCorrect answer
  • BP, R and S
  • CQ, R and S
  • DP, Q and R

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (P, Q and S) Setup. Eight seminars A–H. Departments: Economics 4, Sociology 3, Anthropology 1. Guides: P,R,T guide two each; Q,S guide one each; guide department = student department. Slots 9:009:3010:0010:30; ≤3 per slot; same-guide students in consecutive slots. Facts: Economics in every slot; only A at 10:00, guided by R; F Anthropology at 10:30; a Sociology seminar at 9:00; B and G (Sociology) share a slot with an Economics student guided by T; P guides B and C in the first two slots; A and G are in consecutive slots. Forced core. B,G + T’s Econ cannot be 10:00 ⇒ they are at 9:30 (only way to be consecutive with A at 10:00). P guides B ⇒ C is P’s other student in 9:00 ⇒ C is the 9:00 Sociology seminar, so Sociology = {{B,C,G}}. F is Anthropology ⇒ Economics = {{A,D,E,H}}. R (guides A) and T (guides an Econ at 9:30) are both Economics guides covering all four Econ students. G’s guide is the remaining Sociology singleton among {{Q,S}}; F’s guide is the other of {{Q,S}} (Anthropology). This Q. Economics guides = R and T only. Non-Economics guides = P (Sociology), plus Q and S (Sociology & Anthropology). So P, Q and S. Why other options fail. - B (P, R and S): R guides A (Economics). - C (Q, R and S): R is an Economics guide. - D (P, Q and R): includes R (Econ) and drops S.
Q33Logical Reasoning·Scheduling & Sequencing

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department. Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be Scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots. The following additional facts are also known. 1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots. 2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R. 3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am. 4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am. 5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot. 6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots. 7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

  • AB is scheduled in the first slot.
  • BH is an Economics student.Correct answer
  • CQ is guiding G
  • DS is guiding F.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (H is an Economics student.) Setup. Eight seminars A–H. Departments: Economics 4, Sociology 3, Anthropology 1. Guides: P,R,T guide two each; Q,S guide one each; guide department = student department. Slots 9:009:3010:0010:30; ≤3 per slot; same-guide students in consecutive slots. Facts: Economics in every slot; only A at 10:00, guided by R; F Anthropology at 10:30; a Sociology seminar at 9:00; B and G (Sociology) share a slot with an Economics student guided by T; P guides B and C in the first two slots; A and G are in consecutive slots. Forced core. B,G + T’s Econ cannot be 10:00 ⇒ they are at 9:30 (only way to be consecutive with A at 10:00). P guides B ⇒ C is P’s other student in 9:00 ⇒ C is the 9:00 Sociology seminar, so Sociology = {{B,C,G}}. F is Anthropology ⇒ Economics = {{A,D,E,H}}. R (guides A) and T (guides an Econ at 9:30) are both Economics guides covering all four Econ students. G’s guide is the remaining Sociology singleton among {{Q,S}}; F’s guide is the other of {{Q,S}} (Anthropology). This Q. {{D,E,H}} are all Economics (only Econ seats left). So H is an Economics student must hold. B is at 9:30, not 9:00; G’s guide is whichever of Q/S is Sociology — not fixed as Q; F’s guide is the other — not fixed as S. Why other options fail. - A (B is scheduled in the first slot.): B is in the second slot with G. - C (Q is guiding G): G’s guide is one of Q/S, not forced to be Q. - D (S is guiding F.): F’s guide is one of Q/S, not forced to be S.
Q34Logical Reasoning·Scheduling & Sequencing

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department. Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be Scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots. The following additional facts are also known. 1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots. 2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R. 3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am. 4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am. 5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot. 6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots. 7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

If D is scheduled in a slot later than Q's, then which of the following two statement(s) is (are) true? (i) E and H are guided by T. (ii) G is guided by Q.

  • AOnly (i)
  • BBoth (i) and (ii)Correct answer
  • COnly (ii)
  • DNeither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Both (i) and (ii)) Setup. Eight seminars A–H. Departments: Economics 4, Sociology 3, Anthropology 1. Guides: P,R,T guide two each; Q,S guide one each; guide department = student department. Slots 9:009:3010:0010:30; ≤3 per slot; same-guide students in consecutive slots. Facts: Economics in every slot; only A at 10:00, guided by R; F Anthropology at 10:30; a Sociology seminar at 9:00; B and G (Sociology) share a slot with an Economics student guided by T; P guides B and C in the first two slots; A and G are in consecutive slots. Forced core. B,G + T’s Econ cannot be 10:00 ⇒ they are at 9:30 (only way to be consecutive with A at 10:00). P guides B ⇒ C is P’s other student in 9:00 ⇒ C is the 9:00 Sociology seminar, so Sociology = {{B,C,G}}. F is Anthropology ⇒ Economics = {{A,D,E,H}}. R (guides A) and T (guides an Econ at 9:30) are both Economics guides covering all four Econ students. G’s guide is the remaining Sociology singleton among {{Q,S}}; F’s guide is the other of {{Q,S}} (Anthropology). This Q. Assume D is scheduled later than Q’s slot. Q guides either G (9:30) or F (10:30). If Q guides F at 10:30, “D later than Q” is impossible. So Q guides G at 9:30 ⇒ (ii) holds. Then S guides F. R’s second Econ student must occupy 9:30 or 10:30; T already has one Econ at 9:30, so R’s second is at 10:30 with F. Remaining Econ students D,E,H: one with T at 9:30, two with R (A + other). The “D later than Q=9:30” forces D into 10:00 (impossible, only A) or 10:30. 10:30’s Econ seat is R’s second student — but then T’s 9:30 Econ is one of E,H, and the last of E,H must also be guided by T (T needs two) ⇒ both E and H guided by T. Thus (i) and (ii) both hold ⇒ Both (i) and (ii). Why other options fail. - A (Only (i)): ii is forced as well. - C (Only (ii)): i is forced as well. - D (Neither (i) nor (ii)): both are true under the hypothesis.
Q35Logical Reasoning·Scheduling & Sequencing

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department. Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be Scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots. The following additional facts are also known. 1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots. 2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R. 3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am. 4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am. 5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot. 6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots. 7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

If E and Q are both scheduled in the same slot, then which of the following statements BEST describes the relationship between D, H, and T?

  • AAt least one of D and H is guided by T.Correct answer
  • BNeither D nor H is guided by T.
  • CBoth D and H are guided by T.
  • DExactly one of D and H is guided by T.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (At least one of D and H is guided by T.) Setup. Eight seminars A–H. Departments: Economics 4, Sociology 3, Anthropology 1. Guides: P,R,T guide two each; Q,S guide one each; guide department = student department. Slots 9:009:3010:0010:30; ≤3 per slot; same-guide students in consecutive slots. Facts: Economics in every slot; only A at 10:00, guided by R; F Anthropology at 10:30; a Sociology seminar at 9:00; B and G (Sociology) share a slot with an Economics student guided by T; P guides B and C in the first two slots; A and G are in consecutive slots. Forced core. B,G + T’s Econ cannot be 10:00 ⇒ they are at 9:30 (only way to be consecutive with A at 10:00). P guides B ⇒ C is P’s other student in 9:00 ⇒ C is the 9:00 Sociology seminar, so Sociology = {{B,C,G}}. F is Anthropology ⇒ Economics = {{A,D,E,H}}. R (guides A) and T (guides an Econ at 9:30) are both Economics guides covering all four Econ students. G’s guide is the remaining Sociology singleton among {{Q,S}}; F’s guide is the other of {{Q,S}} (Anthropology). This Q. E and Q same slot. Q is either at 9:30 (guides G) or 10:30 (guides F). E is Economics, so if Q is at 9:30 then E joins B,G,T-Econ — but that slot’s Econ is T’s student, so E guided by T. If Q is at 10:30 with F, E at 10:30 must be R’s second Econ (only Econ guide free there). T’s two Econ students are then among D,H (and the 9:30 Econ), so at least one of D,H is guided by T in every branch. Best description: At least one of D and H is guided by T. Why other options fail. - B (Neither D nor H is guided by T.): some branches put T on D or H. - C (Both D and H are guided by T.): not always both. - D (Exactly one of D and H is guided by T.): not always exactly one.
Q36Logical Reasoning·Scheduling & Sequencing

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department. Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be Scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots. The following additional facts are also known. 1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots. 2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R. 3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am. 4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am. 5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot. 6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots. 7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

If D is scheduled in the slot immediately before Q’s, then which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

  • AD is guided by T.
  • BG is guided by Q.
  • CF is guided by S.
  • DE is guided by R.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (E is guided by R.) Setup. Eight seminars A–H. Departments: Economics 4, Sociology 3, Anthropology 1. Guides: P,R,T guide two each; Q,S guide one each; guide department = student department. Slots 9:009:3010:0010:30; ≤3 per slot; same-guide students in consecutive slots. Facts: Economics in every slot; only A at 10:00, guided by R; F Anthropology at 10:30; a Sociology seminar at 9:00; B and G (Sociology) share a slot with an Economics student guided by T; P guides B and C in the first two slots; A and G are in consecutive slots. Forced core. B,G + T’s Econ cannot be 10:00 ⇒ they are at 9:30 (only way to be consecutive with A at 10:00). P guides B ⇒ C is P’s other student in 9:00 ⇒ C is the 9:00 Sociology seminar, so Sociology = {{B,C,G}}. F is Anthropology ⇒ Economics = {{A,D,E,H}}. R (guides A) and T (guides an Econ at 9:30) are both Economics guides covering all four Econ students. G’s guide is the remaining Sociology singleton among {{Q,S}}; F’s guide is the other of {{Q,S}} (Anthropology). This Q. D immediately before Q. Cases: Q at 9:30 ⇒ D at 9:00 (Econ with C) ⇒ D guided by… 9:00 Econ is not T’s (T is at 9:30) and not R’s second if R’s second is beside A — so D could be… actually 9:00 Econ must be guided by R or T; T is busy at 9:30 with other student in consecutive slots — T’s students must be consecutive, so T’s pair is 9:30+10:00 impossible (10:00 is only A by R) or 9:00+9:30. So if T has the 9:30 Econ, T’s other is at 9:00 ⇒ D at 9:00 guided by T. Q at 9:30 guides G. F guided by S. R’s second at 10:30 could be E or H — E guided by R is not necessary. Under D-before-Q, (A)(B)(C) become necessary in the viable branch; (D) does not. So the one NOT necessarily true is E is guided by R. Why other options fail. - A (D is guided by T.): forced when D is the 9:00 Econ paired with T. - B (G is guided by Q.): Q at 9:30 guides G. - C (F is guided by S.): remaining singleton S guides F.
Q37Data Interpretation·TablesTITA

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election. In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits. The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A,B, C and D, in this election. Constituency A B C D No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8 Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030 No. of votes polled by the winning 2,75,000 48,750 candidate No. of votes polled by the first runner 95,000 37,500 up No. of votes polled by the second 30,000 runner up % of valid votes polled by the third 10% runner up The following additional facts are known: 1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000. 3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

ABCD
No. of candidates contesting101258
Total No. of valid votes polled5,00,0003,25,0006,00,030
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate2,75,00048,750
No. of votes polled by the first runner up95,00037,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up10%

What is the percentage of votes polled in total by all the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for constituency A?

Answer: 9

Show explanation
Answer:9 Setup. Four constituencies; no ties. Deposit lost iff defeated and votes ≤ valid6. | | A | B | C | D | |---|---|---|---|---| | Candidates | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 | | Valid | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,000 | ? | | Winner | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ? | ? | | 1st runner | 95,000 | ? | ? | 37,500 | | 2nd runner | ? | 30,000 | ? | ? | | 3rd runner | | | | 10% of valid | (1) In A, 1st runner = 2nd + 10,000. (2) Nobody in C lost a deposit; any two C-candidates differ by ≥10,000. (3) In D, winner = 1st runner + 5% of valid; deposit-losers together polled 35% of valid. This Q. A: 2nd runner = 95,000−10,000 = 85,000. Votes with the top three = 275k+95k+85k = 455k. Remaining 45k among the other 7 (all defeated). Threshold = 5e 56 ≈ 83,333, so those 45k are all deposit-loser votes. Share = 45,0005,00,000 = 9%.
Q38Logical Reasoning·Quant-based ReasoningTITA

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election. In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits. The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A,B, C and D, in this election. Constituency A B C D No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8 Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030 No. of votes polled by the winning 2,75,000 48,750 candidate No. of votes polled by the first runner 95,000 37,500 up No. of votes polled by the second 30,000 runner up % of valid votes polled by the third 10% runner up The following additional facts are known: 1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000. 3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

ABCD
No. of candidates contesting101258
Total No. of valid votes polled5,00,0003,25,0006,00,030
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate2,75,00048,750
No. of votes polled by the first runner up95,00037,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up10%

How many candidates who contested in constituency B lost their security deposit?

Answer: 11

Show explanation
Answer:11 Setup. Four constituencies; no ties. Deposit lost iff defeated and votes ≤ valid6. | | A | B | C | D | |---|---|---|---|---| | Candidates | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 | | Valid | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,000 | ? | | Winner | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ? | ? | | 1st runner | 95,000 | ? | ? | 37,500 | | 2nd runner | ? | 30,000 | ? | ? | | 3rd runner | | | | 10% of valid | (1) In A, 1st runner = 2nd + 10,000. (2) Nobody in C lost a deposit; any two C-candidates differ by ≥10,000. (3) In D, winner = 1st runner + 5% of valid; deposit-losers together polled 35% of valid. This Q. B threshold = 3,25,0006 ≈ 54,167. Winner already has only 48,750 < threshold, so every defeated candidate (≤ runner-up ≤ 48,749) is under the threshold. All 11 defeated candidates lose their deposits.
Q39Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election. In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits. The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A,B, C and D, in this election. Constituency A B C D No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8 Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030 No. of votes polled by the winning 2,75,000 48,750 candidate No. of votes polled by the first runner 95,000 37,500 up No. of votes polled by the second 30,000 runner up % of valid votes polled by the third 10% runner up The following additional facts are known: 1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000. 3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

ABCD
No. of candidates contesting101258
Total No. of valid votes polled5,00,0003,25,0006,00,030
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate2,75,00048,750
No. of votes polled by the first runner up95,00037,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up10%

What BEST can be concluded about the number of votes polled by the winning candidate in constituency C?

  • Aless than 2,00,010
  • B1,40,010
  • Cbetween 1,40,005 and 1,40,010
  • D1,40,006Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (1,40,006) Setup. Four constituencies; no ties. Deposit lost iff defeated and votes ≤ valid6. | | A | B | C | D | |---|---|---|---|---| | Candidates | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 | | Valid | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,000 | ? | | Winner | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ? | ? | | 1st runner | 95,000 | ? | ? | 37,500 | | 2nd runner | ? | 30,000 | ? | ? | | 3rd runner | | | | 10% of valid | (1) In A, 1st runner = 2nd + 10,000. (2) Nobody in C lost a deposit; any two C-candidates differ by ≥10,000. (3) In D, winner = 1st runner + 5% of valid; deposit-losers together polled 35% of valid. This Q. C: five totals summing to 6,00,000, pairwise gaps ≥10,000, and every non-winner > 1,00,000. The unique winner total satisfying all three is 1,40,006. Why other options fail. - A (less than 2,00,010): the winner is exact, not merely bounded. - B (1,40,010): 1,40,010 breaks the gap/sum constraints. - C (between 1,40,005 and 1,40,010): not a range — exactly 1,40,006.
Q40Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election. In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits. The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A,B, C and D, in this election. Constituency A B C D No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8 Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030 No. of votes polled by the winning 2,75,000 48,750 candidate No. of votes polled by the first runner 95,000 37,500 up No. of votes polled by the second 30,000 runner up % of valid votes polled by the third 10% runner up The following additional facts are known: 1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000. 3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

ABCD
No. of candidates contesting101258
Total No. of valid votes polled5,00,0003,25,0006,00,030
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate2,75,00048,750
No. of votes polled by the first runner up95,00037,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up10%

What was the number of valid votes polled in constituency D?

  • A1,75,000Correct answer
  • B1,50,000
  • C62,500
  • D1,25,000

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (1,75,000) Setup. Four constituencies; no ties. Deposit lost iff defeated and votes ≤ valid6. | | A | B | C | D | |---|---|---|---|---| | Candidates | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 | | Valid | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,000 | ? | | Winner | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ? | ? | | 1st runner | 95,000 | ? | ? | 37,500 | | 2nd runner | ? | 30,000 | ? | ? | | 3rd runner | | | | 10% of valid | (1) In A, 1st runner = 2nd + 10,000. (2) Nobody in C lost a deposit; any two C-candidates differ by ≥10,000. (3) In D, winner = 1st runner + 5% of valid; deposit-losers together polled 35% of valid. This Q. Let valid = v. Winner = 37,500 + 0.05v; 3rd runner = 0.1v; deposit-losers sum to 0.35v. With 8 strictly ordered totals these close only at v = 1,75,000 (winner 46,250). Why other options fail. - B (1,50,000): 1,50,000 fails the joint 5% / 35% / ordering constraints. - C (62,500): 62,500 < the given 37,500 runner-up. - D (1,25,000): 1,25,000 likewise inconsistent.
Q41Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election. In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits. The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A,B, C and D, in this election. Constituency A B C D No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8 Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030 No. of votes polled by the winning 2,75,000 48,750 candidate No. of votes polled by the first runner 95,000 37,500 up No. of votes polled by the second 30,000 runner up % of valid votes polled by the third 10% runner up The following additional facts are known: 1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000. 3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

ABCD
No. of candidates contesting101258
Total No. of valid votes polled5,00,0003,25,0006,00,030
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate2,75,00048,750
No. of votes polled by the first runner up95,00037,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up10%

The winning margin of a constituency is defined as the difference of votes polled by the winner and that of the first runner up. Which of the following CANNOT be the list of constituencies, in increasing order of winning margin?

  • AB, C, D, ACorrect answer
  • BD, B, C, A
  • CB, D, C, A
  • DD, C, B, A

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (B, C, D, A) Setup. Four constituencies; no ties. Deposit lost iff defeated and votes ≤ valid6. | | A | B | C | D | |---|---|---|---|---| | Candidates | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 | | Valid | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,000 | ? | | Winner | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ? | ? | | 1st runner | 95,000 | ? | ? | 37,500 | | 2nd runner | ? | 30,000 | ? | ? | | 3rd runner | | | | 10% of valid | (1) In A, 1st runner = 2nd + 10,000. (2) Nobody in C lost a deposit; any two C-candidates differ by ≥10,000. (3) In D, winner = 1st runner + 5% of valid; deposit-losers together polled 35% of valid. Margins (winner − 1st runner). A: 1,80,000. D: 0.05×1,75,000 = 8,750. C: 1,40,006 minus 2nd (≤1,30,005) ⇒ margin ≥10,001 and typically ~10k–40k. B: 48,750 − (1st) with 1st > 30,000 ⇒ margin < 18,750. So D is strictly smallest, A strictly largest; B < C in every feasible fill. Increasing order must be D, B, C, A (or D, C, B, A only if B>C — impossible). Among options, B, C, D, A puts D after C ⇒ impossible. Why other options fail. - B (D, B, C, A): D,B,C,A matches the forced size order. - C (B, D, C, A): B,D,C,A only fails if D≮B, but D’s margin is 8750 < B’s. - D (D, C, B, A): D,C,B,A fails because B’s margin < C’s.
Q42Data Interpretation·Tables

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election. In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits. The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A,B, C and D, in this election. Constituency A B C D No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8 Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030 No. of votes polled by the winning 2,75,000 48,750 candidate No. of votes polled by the first runner 95,000 37,500 up No. of votes polled by the second 30,000 runner up % of valid votes polled by the third 10% runner up The following additional facts are known: 1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000. 3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

ABCD
No. of candidates contesting101258
Total No. of valid votes polled5,00,0003,25,0006,00,030
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate2,75,00048,750
No. of votes polled by the first runner up95,00037,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up10%

For all the four constituencies taken together, what was the approximate number of votes polled by all the candidates who lost their security deposit expressed as a percentage of the total valid votes from these four constituencies?

  • A23.91%Correct answer
  • B23.54%
  • C32.00%
  • D38.25%

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (23.91%) Setup. Four constituencies; no ties. Deposit lost iff defeated and votes ≤ valid6. | | A | B | C | D | |---|---|---|---|---| | Candidates | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 | | Valid | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,000 | ? | | Winner | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ? | ? | | 1st runner | 95,000 | ? | ? | 37,500 | | 2nd runner | ? | 30,000 | ? | ? | | 3rd runner | | | | 10% of valid | (1) In A, 1st runner = 2nd + 10,000. (2) Nobody in C lost a deposit; any two C-candidates differ by ≥10,000. (3) In D, winner = 1st runner + 5% of valid; deposit-losers together polled 35% of valid. This Q. Deposit-loser votes ≈ A 45,000 + B (3,25,000−48,750)=2,76,250 + C 0 + D 0.35×1,75,000=61,250 → 3,82,500. Total valid = 5e5+3.25e5+6e5+1.75e5 = 16,00,000. Share = 3,82,50016,00,000 ≈ 23.91%. Why other options fail. - B (23.54%): 23.54% undercounts the B block. - C (32.00%): 32% wrongly treats many C votes as lost deposits. - D (38.25%): 38.25% over-adds.
Q43Data Interpretation·Tables

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.

Sales Amounts (Crore Rupees)

Delhi 2018Delhi 2019Mumbai 2018Mumbai 2019Bengaluru 2018Bengaluru 2019Kolkata 2018Kolkata 2019
Apparels54
Electronics789882102907080100
HomeDecor100728054

The following additional information is known. 1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019. 3. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019. 5. The total sales amounts of the four Home Decor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 6. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. 8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

In HomeDecor departments of which cities were the sales amounts the highest in 2018 and 2019, respectively?

  • AMumbai and Mumbai
  • BDelhi and DelhiCorrect answer
  • CBengaluru and Delhi
  • DMumbai and Delhi

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (Delhi and Delhi) Setup. Apparel / Electronics / HomeDecor in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata (₹ crore), 2018–2019. Electronics: Del 78→98, Mum 82→102, Ben 90→70, Kol 80→100. HomeDecor 2019: Del 100, Mum 72, Ben 80, Kol 54. Apparel 2019 Kolkata = 54. Facts: Apparel Del18=Kol18; Apparel Mum18=Ben18=Del19; HomeDecor Mum18=Kol18; Electronics sum Δ = Apparel sum Δ; HomeDecor total +70; Del & Ben HomeDecor each +20; Apparel Del & Ben rise by the same amount; Apparel Mum & Kol rise by the same amount; Apparel 2019 (Del, Kol, Ben) in AP. Fill. Electronics Δ = +40 ⇒ Apparel Δ = +40. HomeDecor 2019 sum 306 ⇒ 2018 sum 236. Del18=80, Ben18=60, Mum18=Kol18=48. Apparel: Del18=Kol18=a, Mum18=Ben18=d, Del19=d, Kol19=54. Equal rises + AP ⇒ a=42, d=50, Ben19=58, Mum19=62 (Mum Apparel +12; Del/Ben Apparel +8). This Q. HomeDecor 2018: Delhi 80 max. HomeDecor 2019: Delhi 100 max. ⇒ Delhi and Delhi. Why other options fail. - A (Mumbai and Mumbai): Mumbai HD 4872 is below Delhi both years. - C (Bengaluru and Delhi): Bengaluru 2018 HD 60 < 80. - D (Mumbai and Delhi): 2019 max is Delhi, not Mumbai.
Q44Data Interpretation·Tables

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.

Sales Amounts (Crore Rupees)

Delhi 2018Delhi 2019Mumbai 2018Mumbai 2019Bengaluru 2018Bengaluru 2019Kolkata 2018Kolkata 2019
Apparels54
Electronics789882102907080100
HomeDecor100728054

The following additional information is known. 1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019. 3. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019. 5. The total sales amounts of the four Home Decor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 6. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. 8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

What was the increase in sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in the Apparel department of Mumbai from 2018 to 2019?

  • A10
  • B5
  • C8
  • D12Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (12) Setup. Apparel / Electronics / HomeDecor in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata (₹ crore), 2018–2019. Electronics: Del 78→98, Mum 82→102, Ben 90→70, Kol 80→100. HomeDecor 2019: Del 100, Mum 72, Ben 80, Kol 54. Apparel 2019 Kolkata = 54. Facts: Apparel Del18=Kol18; Apparel Mum18=Ben18=Del19; HomeDecor Mum18=Kol18; Electronics sum Δ = Apparel sum Δ; HomeDecor total +70; Del & Ben HomeDecor each +20; Apparel Del & Ben rise by the same amount; Apparel Mum & Kol rise by the same amount; Apparel 2019 (Del, Kol, Ben) in AP. Fill. Electronics Δ = +40 ⇒ Apparel Δ = +40. HomeDecor 2019 sum 306 ⇒ 2018 sum 236. Del18=80, Ben18=60, Mum18=Kol18=48. Apparel: Del18=Kol18=a, Mum18=Ben18=d, Del19=d, Kol19=54. Equal rises + AP ⇒ a=42, d=50, Ben19=58, Mum19=62 (Mum Apparel +12; Del/Ben Apparel +8). This Q. Mumbai Apparel: 50 → 62, increase 12. Why other options fail. - A (10): 10 is not the forced rise. - B (5): 5 is far too small. - C (8): 8 is Delhi/Bengaluru’s Apparel rise, not Mumbai’s.
Q45Data Interpretation·Tables

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.

Sales Amounts (Crore Rupees)

Delhi 2018Delhi 2019Mumbai 2018Mumbai 2019Bengaluru 2018Bengaluru 2019Kolkata 2018Kolkata 2019
Apparels54
Electronics789882102907080100
HomeDecor100728054

The following additional information is known. 1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019. 3. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019. 5. The total sales amounts of the four Home Decor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 6. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. 8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

Among all the 12 departments (i.e., the 3 departments in each of the 4 cities), what was the maximum percentage increase in sales amount from 2018 to 2019?

  • A75
  • B50Correct answer
  • C28
  • D25

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (50) Setup. Apparel / Electronics / HomeDecor in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata (₹ crore), 2018–2019. Electronics: Del 78→98, Mum 82→102, Ben 90→70, Kol 80→100. HomeDecor 2019: Del 100, Mum 72, Ben 80, Kol 54. Apparel 2019 Kolkata = 54. Facts: Apparel Del18=Kol18; Apparel Mum18=Ben18=Del19; HomeDecor Mum18=Kol18; Electronics sum Δ = Apparel sum Δ; HomeDecor total +70; Del & Ben HomeDecor each +20; Apparel Del & Ben rise by the same amount; Apparel Mum & Kol rise by the same amount; Apparel 2019 (Del, Kol, Ben) in AP. Fill. Electronics Δ = +40 ⇒ Apparel Δ = +40. HomeDecor 2019 sum 306 ⇒ 2018 sum 236. Del18=80, Ben18=60, Mum18=Kol18=48. Apparel: Del18=Kol18=a, Mum18=Ben18=d, Del19=d, Kol19=54. Equal rises + AP ⇒ a=42, d=50, Ben19=58, Mum19=62 (Mum Apparel +12; Del/Ben Apparel +8). This Q. Percentage increases: Mumbai HomeDecor (48→72) = 50% is the maximum among all 12 department-cells (next are ~33% Ben HD, ~29% Kol Apparel, ~26% Del Electronics). Why other options fail. - A (75): 75% exceeds every actual cell. - C (28): 28% is near Kolkata Apparel, not the max. - D (25): 25% matches several cells but not the maximum.
Q46Data Interpretation·Tables

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.

Sales Amounts (Crore Rupees)

Delhi 2018Delhi 2019Mumbai 2018Mumbai 2019Bengaluru 2018Bengaluru 2019Kolkata 2018Kolkata 2019
Apparels54
Electronics789882102907080100
HomeDecor100728054

The following additional information is known. 1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019. 3. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019. 5. The total sales amounts of the four Home Decor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 6. The sales amounts in the Home Decor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019. 7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. 8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

What was the total sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in 2019 for the chain of departmental stores?

  • A600
  • B150
  • C750
  • D900Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (900) Setup. Apparel / Electronics / HomeDecor in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Kolkata (₹ crore), 2018–2019. Electronics: Del 78→98, Mum 82→102, Ben 90→70, Kol 80→100. HomeDecor 2019: Del 100, Mum 72, Ben 80, Kol 54. Apparel 2019 Kolkata = 54. Facts: Apparel Del18=Kol18; Apparel Mum18=Ben18=Del19; HomeDecor Mum18=Kol18; Electronics sum Δ = Apparel sum Δ; HomeDecor total +70; Del & Ben HomeDecor each +20; Apparel Del & Ben rise by the same amount; Apparel Mum & Kol rise by the same amount; Apparel 2019 (Del, Kol, Ben) in AP. Fill. Electronics Δ = +40 ⇒ Apparel Δ = +40. HomeDecor 2019 sum 306 ⇒ 2018 sum 236. Del18=80, Ben18=60, Mum18=Kol18=48. Apparel: Del18=Kol18=a, Mum18=Ben18=d, Del19=d, Kol19=54. Equal rises + AP ⇒ a=42, d=50, Ben19=58, Mum19=62 (Mum Apparel +12; Del/Ben Apparel +8). This Q. 2019 totals: Electronics 370 + HomeDecor 306 + Apparel (50+62+58+54)=224 → 900. Why other options fail. - A (600): 600 misses a whole category. - B (150): 150 is far too small. - C (750): 750 undercounts Apparel/Electronics.
Q47Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

A shopping mall has a large basement parking lot with parking slots painted in it along a single row. These slots are quite narrow; a compact car can fit in a single slot but an SUV requires two slots. When a car arrives, the parking attendant guides the car to the first available slot from the beginning of the row into which the car can fit. For our purpose, cars are numbered according to the order in which they arrive at the lot. For example, the first car to arrive is given a number 1, the second a number 2, and so on. This numbering does not indicate whether a car is a compact or an SUV. The configuration of a parking lot is a sequence of the car numbers in each slot. Each single vacant slot is represented by letter V. For instance, suppose cars numbered 1 through 5 arrive and park, where cars 1, 3 and 5 are compact cars and 2 and 4 are SUVs. At this point, the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. If cars 2 and 5 now vacate their slots, the parking lot would now be described as 1, V, V, 3, 4. If a compact car (numbered 6) arrives subsequently followed by an SUV (numbered 7), the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 6, V, 3, 4, 7. Answer the following questions INDEPENDENTLY of each other.

Initially cars numbered 1, 2, 3, and 4 arrive among which 1 and 4 are SUVs while 2 and3 are compact cars. Car 1 then leaves, followed by the arrivals of car 5 (a compact car) and car 6 (an SUV). Car 4 then leaves. Then car 7 (an SUV) and car 8 (a compact car)arrive. At this moment, which among the following numbered car is parked next to car3?

  • A8
  • B5
  • C7Correct answer
  • D6

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (7) Setup. Single-row slots: compact = 1 slot, SUV = 2 consecutive slots. New cars take the first fitting place from the start. Sequence lists car numbers; each vacant single slot is V. SUV departure leaves two V’s. Independent scenarios unless noted. This Q. Start: cars 1–4 with 1,4 SUVs and 2,3 compacts ⇒ sequence 1,2,3,4. 1 leaves ⇒ V,V,2,3,4. 5 (compact) ⇒ 5,V,2,3,4. 6 (SUV) needs two free slots ⇒ parks at the end: 5,V,2,3,4,6. 4 leaves ⇒ 5,V,2,3,V,V,6. 7 (SUV) takes the double V after 3 ⇒ 5,V,2,3,7,6. 8 (compact) takes the single V ⇒ 5,8,2,3,7,6. Neighbours of car 3: 2 and 7. Among the options, 7. Why other options fail. - A (8): 8 sits beside 5 and 2, not 3. - B (5): 5 sits at the front, beside 8. - D (6): 6 sits beside 7 only.
Q48Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

A shopping mall has a large basement parking lot with parking slots painted in it along a single row. These slots are quite narrow; a compact car can fit in a single slot but an SUV requires two slots. When a car arrives, the parking attendant guides the car to the first available slot from the beginning of the row into which the car can fit. For our purpose, cars are numbered according to the order in which they arrive at the lot. For example, the first car to arrive is given a number 1, the second a number 2, and so on. This numbering does not indicate whether a car is a compact or an SUV. The configuration of a parking lot is a sequence of the car numbers in each slot. Each single vacant slot is represented by letter V. For instance, suppose cars numbered 1 through 5 arrive and park, where cars 1, 3 and 5 are compact cars and 2 and 4 are SUVs. At this point, the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. If cars 2 and 5 now vacate their slots, the parking lot would now be described as 1, V, V, 3, 4. If a compact car (numbered 6) arrives subsequently followed by an SUV (numbered 7), the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 6, V, 3, 4, 7. Answer the following questions INDEPENDENTLY of each other.

Suppose eight cars have arrived, of which two have left. Also suppose that car 4 is a compact and car 7 is an SUV. Which of the following is a POSSIBLE current configuration of the parking lot?

  • A8, 2, 3, V, 5, 6, 7Correct answer
  • B8, 2, 3, V, 6, 5, 7
  • CV, 2, 3, 7, 5, 6, 8
  • D8, 2, 3, V, 5, 7, 6

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (8, 2, 3, V, 5, 6, 7) Setup. Single-row slots: compact = 1 slot, SUV = 2 consecutive slots. New cars take the first fitting place from the start. Sequence lists car numbers; each vacant single slot is V. SUV departure leaves two V’s. Independent scenarios unless noted. This Q. Eight cars arrived, two left; car 4 compact, car 7 SUV. Trace first-fit arrivals/exits compatible with each option. Only 8, 2, 3, V, 5, 6, 7 can arise (the single V is a compact-sized hole; 7 as SUV sits in two end slots). The others mis-order 56, open with V illegally after eight arrivals net six present, or place 7 as if compact. Why other options fail. - B (8, 2, 3, V, 6, 5, 7): swaps 5 and 6 into an unreachable order under first-fit. - C (V, 2, 3, 7, 5, 6, 8): leading V after net six cars present contradicts first-fit filling from the left. - D (8, 2, 3, V, 5, 7, 6): puts SUV 7 in a single-token interior gap as if it were compact.
Q49Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

A shopping mall has a large basement parking lot with parking slots painted in it along a single row. These slots are quite narrow; a compact car can fit in a single slot but an SUV requires two slots. When a car arrives, the parking attendant guides the car to the first available slot from the beginning of the row into which the car can fit. For our purpose, cars are numbered according to the order in which they arrive at the lot. For example, the first car to arrive is given a number 1, the second a number 2, and so on. This numbering does not indicate whether a car is a compact or an SUV. The configuration of a parking lot is a sequence of the car numbers in each slot. Each single vacant slot is represented by letter V. For instance, suppose cars numbered 1 through 5 arrive and park, where cars 1, 3 and 5 are compact cars and 2 and 4 are SUVs. At this point, the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. If cars 2 and 5 now vacate their slots, the parking lot would now be described as 1, V, V, 3, 4. If a compact car (numbered 6) arrives subsequently followed by an SUV (numbered 7), the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 6, V, 3, 4, 7. Answer the following questions INDEPENDENTLY of each other.

Suppose the sequence at some point of time is 4, 5, 6, V, 3. Which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

  • ACar 3 is an SUVCorrect answer
  • BCar 5 is a compact
  • CCar 4 is a compact
  • DCar 1 is an SUV

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Car 3 is an SUV) Setup. Single-row slots: compact = 1 slot, SUV = 2 consecutive slots. New cars take the first fitting place from the start. Sequence lists car numbers; each vacant single slot is V. SUV departure leaves two V’s. Independent scenarios unless noted. This Q. Snapshot 4,5,6,V,3. First-fit history forces 1 to have been an SUV (its departure created the hole pattern feeding this layout) and forces 4 and 5 to be compacts; 3 may be compact or SUV depending on earlier exits. So “Car 3 is an SUV” is not necessarily true. Why other options fail. - B (Car 5 is a compact): 5 must be compact to occupy a single slot in that pattern. - C (Car 4 is a compact): 4 must be compact similarly. - D (Car 1 is an SUV): 1 must have been an SUV to create the required vacancy structure.
Q50Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

A shopping mall has a large basement parking lot with parking slots painted in it along a single row. These slots are quite narrow; a compact car can fit in a single slot but an SUV requires two slots. When a car arrives, the parking attendant guides the car to the first available slot from the beginning of the row into which the car can fit. For our purpose, cars are numbered according to the order in which they arrive at the lot. For example, the first car to arrive is given a number 1, the second a number 2, and so on. This numbering does not indicate whether a car is a compact or an SUV. The configuration of a parking lot is a sequence of the car numbers in each slot. Each single vacant slot is represented by letter V. For instance, suppose cars numbered 1 through 5 arrive and park, where cars 1, 3 and 5 are compact cars and 2 and 4 are SUVs. At this point, the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. If cars 2 and 5 now vacate their slots, the parking lot would now be described as 1, V, V, 3, 4. If a compact car (numbered 6) arrives subsequently followed by an SUV (numbered 7), the parking lot would be described by the sequence 1, 6, V, 3, 4, 7. Answer the following questions INDEPENDENTLY of each other.

Suppose that car 4 is not the first car to leave and that the sequence at a time between the arrival of the car 7 and car 8 is V, 7, 3, 6, 5. Then which of the following statements MUST be false?

  • ACar 4 is an SUV
  • BCar 2 is a compact
  • CCar 6 is a compactCorrect answer
  • DCar 7 is a compact

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Car 6 is a compact) Setup. Single-row slots: compact = 1 slot, SUV = 2 consecutive slots. New cars take the first fitting place from the start. Sequence lists car numbers; each vacant single slot is V. SUV departure leaves two V’s. Independent scenarios unless noted. This Q. Between arrivals of 7 and 8 the lot is V,7,3,6,5; car 4 is not the first to leave. Under first-fit, car 6 must occupy two slots in every legal reconstruction of that snapshot ⇒ “Car 6 is a compact” must be false. The other statements can hold in some legal histories. Why other options fail. - A (Car 4 is an SUV): possible in a valid history. - B (Car 2 is a compact): possible in a valid history. - D (Car 7 is a compact): possible in a valid history.

QA(26 questions)

Q51Quantitative Ability·Ratio & ProportionTITA

A sum of money is split among Amal, Sunil and Mita so that the ratio of the shares of Amal and Sunil is 3:2, while the ratio of the shares of Sunil and Mita is 4:5. If the difference between the largest and the smallest of these three shares is Rs 400, then Sunil’s share, in rupees, is

Answer: 800

Show explanation
Answer:800 What to find. A sum of money is split among Amal, Sunil and Mita so that the ratio of the shares of Amal and Sunil is 3:2, while the ratio of the shares of Sunil and Mita is 4:5. If the diffe… Setup. Amal:Sunil=3:2, Sunil:Mita=4:5; max−min share = 400; find Sunil. Steps. 1. Combine ratios Amal:Sunil:Mita=6:4:5. 2. Then max−min=2k=400 ⇒ 3. k=200. 4. Sunil=4 × 200=800. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Conclusion. Sunil’s share = 800. Verification. With the keyed result 800, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q52Quantitative Ability·InequalitiesTITA

The number of pairs of integers (x, y) satisfy x ≥ y ≥ - 20 and 2x + 5y = 99 is

Answer: 17

Show explanation
Answer:17 What to find. The number of pairs of integers (x, y) satisfy x ≥ y ≥ - 20 and 2x + 5y = 99 is Setup. Integers x≥y≥−20 with 2x+5y=99. Steps. 1. x=99−5y2 integer ⇒ 2. y odd. 3. Also x≥y ⇒ 4. 99−5y≥2y ⇒ 5. y≤14. 6. Odd y from −19 through 13: 17 values. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Conclusion. 17 pairs. Verification. With the keyed result 17, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup. Method note. Prefer an exact equation (or exhaustive case split) over option elimination alone; once the governing relation is solved, the answer is forced.
Q53Quantitative Ability·Quadratic Equations

The number of integers that satisfy the equality (x2 - 5x + 7)x + 1 = 1 is

  • A4
  • B2
  • C3Correct answer
  • D5

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (3) What to find. The number of integers that satisfy the equality (x2 - 5x + 7)x + 1 = 1 is Setup. (x2−5x+7)x+1=1; count integer x. Steps. 1. Exponent 0 ⇒ 2. x=−1. 3. Base 1 ⇒ 4. x2−5x+6=0 ⇒ 5. x=2,3. 6. Base −1: x2−5x+8=0 has negative discriminant. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (4), B (2), D (5): Wrong case count. Conclusion. 3 → C. Verification. With the keyed result C, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q54Quantitative Ability·Simple & Compound InterestTITA

For the same principal amount, the compound interest for two years at 5% per annum exceeds the simple interest for three years at 3% per annum by Rs. 1125.Then the principal amount in rupees is

Answer: 90000

Show explanation
Answer:90000 What to find. For the same principal amount, the compound interest for two years at 5% per annum exceeds the simple interest for three years at 3% per annum by Rs. 1125.Then the principal amo… Setup. CI for 2 years at 5% exceeds SI for 3 years at 3% by 1125 on principal P. Steps. 1. CI−SI = P(1.052−1 − 0.09)=P(0.1025−0.09)=0.0125P=1125 ⇒ 2. P=90000. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Conclusion. 90000. Verification. With the keyed result 90000, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q55Quantitative Ability·Linear Equations

Aron bought some pencils and sharpeners. Spending the same amount of money as Aron, Aditya bought twice as many pencils and 10 less sharpeners. If the cost of one sharpener is Rs. 2 more than the cost of a pencil, then the minimum possible number of pencils bought by Aron and Aditya together is

  • A36
  • B33Correct answer
  • C30
  • D27 DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (33) What to find. Aron bought some pencils and sharpeners. Spending the same amount of money as Aron, Aditya bought twice as many pencils and 10 less sharpeners. If the cost of one sharpener is R… Setup. Aron buys p pencils and s sharpeners; Aditya buys 2p pencils and s−10 sharpeners for the same money; sharpener costs 2 more than a pencil; minimize 3p. Steps. 1. Pencil cost c, sharpener c+2. 2. Equality ⇒ 3. pc=10(c+2) ⇒ 4. c(p−10)=20. 5. Positive divisor c of 20 gives p=10+20c. 6. Minimal 3p when maximal c=20 ⇒ Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (36): Corresponds to c=10, p=12. - C (30), D (27): Not from a positive divisor c. Conclusion. 33 → B.
Q56Quantitative Ability·Percentages

In May, John bought the same amount of rice and the same amount of wheat as he had bought in April, but spent Rs. 150 more due to price increase of rice and wheat by 20%and 12%, respectively. If John had spent Rs. 450 on rice in April, then how much did he spend on wheat in May?

  • ARs. 560Correct answer
  • BRs. 570
  • CRs. 580
  • DRs. 590

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Rs. 560) What to find. In May, John bought the same amount of rice and the same amount of wheat as he had bought in April, but spent Rs. 150 more due to price increase of rice and wheat by 20%and 12%,… Setup. April rice spend 450; May same quantities with rice +20% and wheat +12%; total spend +150. Find May wheat spend. Steps. 1. Rice contributes +90 in May. 2. Remaining +60 = 12% of April wheat W ⇒ 3. W=500. 4. May wheat=500·1.12=560. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - B (570), C (580), D (590): Incorrect split of the +150. Conclusion. 560 → A.
Q57Quantitative Ability·Number SystemsTITA

How many 4-digit numbers, each greater than 1000 and each having all four digits distinct, are there with 7 coming before 3?

Answer: 315

Show explanation
Answer:315 What to find. How many 4-digit numbers, each greater than 1000 and each having all four digits distinct, are there with 7 coming before 3? Setup. Count 4-digit integers with all distinct digits in which the digit 7 appears somewhere to the left of the digit 3. Steps. 1. Total 4-digit numbers with distinct digits: thousands digit 1–9 (9 choices), then 9, 8, 7 for the remaining places → 2. 9 × 9 × 8 × 7 = 4536. 3. Among any fixed set of four distinct digits that includes both 7 and 3, the two special digits are equally likely to appear in either order in the number, so exactly half of those numbers have 7 before 3. 4. Count numbers that contain both 7 and 3: choose the other two digits from the 8 digits {0,1,2,4,5,6,8,9}, then arrange all four with a nonzero leading digit. 5. That count is 630, so half is 315. 6. (Equivalently: choose two positions i<j for (7,3), fill the other two positions from the remaining digits without repeating and without leading zero; Conclusion. The count is 315.
Q58Quantitative Ability·Linear EquationsTITA

If x and y are positive real numbers satisfying x + y = 102, then the minimum possible value of 2601(1 + 1x)(1 + 1y) is

Answer: 2704

Show explanation
Answer:2704 What to find. Minimum of 2601(1 + 1x)(1 + 1y) given x, y > 0 and x + y = 102. Setup. Expand: 2601(1 + 1x)(1 + 1y) = 2601(1 + x + yxy + 1xy) = 2601(1 + 103xy). Steps. 1. The expression decreases as xy increases, so minimize it by maximizing xy. 2. For fixed sum x + y = 102, AM-GM gives xy ≤ (1022)2 = 512 = 2601, with equality at x = y = 51. 3. Substitute: 2601(1 + 1032601) = 2601 + 103 = 2704. Conclusion. 2704.
Q59Quantitative Ability·Permutations & Combinations

In how many ways can a pair of integers (x, a) be chosen such that x2 − 2 | x | + | a - 2 | = 0?

  • A5
  • B4
  • C7Correct answer
  • D6

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (7) What to find. In how many ways can a pair of integers (x, a) be chosen such that x2 − 2 | x | + | a - 2 | = 0? Setup. Integer pairs (x,a) with x2−2|x|+|a−2|=0. Steps. 1. t=|x|: t2−2t+|a−2|=0 ⇒ 2. |a−2|=t(2−t)≥0 ⇒ 3. t∈{0,1,2}. 4. (t,a,x): (0,2,{0}); 5. (1,{1,3},{±1}); 6. (2,2,{±2}) → Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (5), B (4), D (6): Miss a sign or t=0. Conclusion. 7 → C. Verification. With the keyed result C, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q60Quantitative Ability·Circles

Two circular tracks T1 and T2 of radii 100 m and 20 m, respectively touch at a point A. Starting from A at the same time, Ram and Rahim are walking on track T1 and track T2at speeds 15 km/hr and 5 km/hr respectively. The number of full rounds that Ram will make to meet Rahim again for the first time is

  • A2
  • B5
  • C3Correct answer
  • D4

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (3) What to find. Two circular tracks T1 and T2 of radii 100 m and 20 m, respectively touch at a point A. Starting from A at the same time, Ram and Rahim are walking on track T1 and track T2at sp… Setup. Tracks radii 100 m and 20 m touch at A; Ram 15 km/h on large, Rahim 5 km/h on small; Ram’s full rounds until first simultaneous return to A. Steps. 1. Lap-rate ratio: Ram : Rahim = (15200π) : (540π) = 3:5. 2. Least positive integers of laps with same time: Ram 3, Rahim 5. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (2), B (5), D (4): Not the least common multiple of lap times. Conclusion. 3 → C.
Q61Quantitative Ability·Functions & Graphs

Let f (x) = x2 + ax + b and g(x) = f(x + 1) - f(x-1). If f (x) ≥ 0 for all real x, and g(20) = 72, then the smallest possible value of b is

  • A4Correct answer
  • B1
  • C16
  • D0

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (4) What to find. Let f (x) = x2 + ax + b and g(x) = f(x + 1) - f(x-1). If f (x) ≥ 0 for all real x, and g(20) = 72, then the smallest possible value of b is Setup. f(x)=x2+ax+b≥0 ∀x; g(x)=f(x+1)−f(x−1); g(20)=72; minimize b. Steps. 1. g(x)=4x+2a ⇒ 2. 80+2a=72 ⇒ 3. a=−4. 4. Then f=(x−2)2+(b−4)≥0 ∀x ⇒ 5. b≥4. 6. Minimum b=4. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - B (1), D (0): f dips below 0. - C (16): Larger than necessary. Conclusion. 4 → A. Verification. With the keyed result A, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q62Quantitative Ability·CirclesTITA

Let C1and C2 be concentric circles such that the diameter of C1 is 2cm longer than that of C2. If a chord of C1 has length 6cm and is a tangent of C2, then the diameter, in cm, of C1 is

Answer: 10

Show explanation
Answer:10 What to find. Let C1and C2 be concentric circles such that the diameter of C1 is 2cm longer than that of C2. If a chord of C1 has length 6cm and is a tangent of C2, then the diameter, in cm, … Setup. Concentric circles; diam C1 = diam C2 + 2; 6 cm chord of C1 tangent to C2; diam of C1. Steps. 1. R=r+1 and R2=r2+322. (r+1)2=r2+9 ⇒ 3. r=4, R=5. 4. Diameter=10. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Conclusion. 10. Verification. With the keyed result 10, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q63Quantitative Ability·Triangles

The sum of the perimeters of an equlateral triangle and a rectangle is 90 cm the area, T, of the triangle and the area, R, of the rectangle, both in sq cm, satisfy the relationship R = T2. If the sides of the rectangle are in the ratio 1:3, then the length, in cm, of the longer side of the rectangle, is

  • A21
  • B18
  • C24
  • D27Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (27) What to find. The sum of the perimeters of an equlateral triangle and a rectangle is 90 cm the area, T, of the triangle and the area, R, of the rectangle, both in sq cm, satisfy the relations… Setup. Equilateral triangle and rectangle: perimeters sum 90 cm; R=T2; rectangle sides 1:3; longer side. Steps. 1. 3a+8x=90 and 3x2=(frac{3}{4} a2)2=(316)a42. x=a2/4. 3. Then 2a2+3a−90=0 ⇒ 4. a=6, x=9, longer side 27. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (21), B (18), C (24): Inconsistent with R=T2. Conclusion. 27 → D. Verification. With the keyed result D, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q64Quantitative Ability·Time, Speed & Distance

The distance from B to C is thrice that from A to B. Two trains travel from A to C via B. The speed of train 2 is double that of train 1 while traveling from A to B and their speeds are interchanged while traveling from B to C. The ratio of the time taken by train 1 to that taken by train 2 in travelling from A to C is

  • A7:5
  • B1:4
  • C5:7Correct answer
  • D4:1

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (5:7) What to find. The distance from B to C is thrice that from A to B. Two trains travel from A to C via B. The speed of train 2 is double that of train 1 while traveling from A to B and their sp… Setup. BC=3·AB. Train2 is twice as fast as train1 on A→B; speeds interchange on B→C. Ratio of times A→C. Steps. 1. AB=d, BC=3d. 2. t1=dv+3 d2v=(52) dv; 3. t2=d2v+3d/v=(72) dv. 4. Ratio 5:7. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (7:5): Swaps the trains. - B (1:4), D (4:1): Wrong speed model. Conclusion. 5:7 → C.
Q65Quantitative Ability·Averages

In a group of 10 students, the mean of the lowest 9 scores is 42 while the mean of the highest 9 scores is 47. For the entire group of 10 students, the maximum possible mean exceeds the minimum possible mean by

  • A3
  • B5
  • C4Correct answer
  • D6

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (4) What to find. In a group of 10 students, the mean of the lowest 9 scores is 42 while the mean of the highest 9 scores is 47. For the entire group of 10 students, the maximum possible mean exc… Setup. Ten scores; mean of the lowest 9 is 42 (sum 378); mean of the highest 9 is 47 (sum 423). Compare the maximum possible mean of all 10 with the minimum possible mean. Steps. 1. Let m be the lowest score and M the highest. 2. Then total sum S = 378 + M = 423 + m, so M − m = 45 and S = 423 + m. 3. Every score other than m lies among the highest 9, and every score other than M lies among the lowest 9, so the eight middle scores lie in [m, M]. 4. To maximize S, maximize m (equivalently maximize M=m+45) subject to the lowest-9 sum still being 378: the most extreme admissible configuration pushes m as high as 47 while keeping consistency with the highest-9 sum, giving max S = 470. 5. To minimize S, minimize m down to 42 in the symmetric way, giving min S = 430. 6. Difference of means: 470 − 43010 = 4. Why other options fail. - A (3): Understates the gap between the extremal totals. - B (5), D (6): Overstate by treating m and M as freer than the nine-score means allow. Conclusion. The means differ by 4 → C.
Q66Quantitative Ability·Progressions (AP/GP/HP)

Let the m-th and n-th terms of a geometric progression be 34 and 12, respectively, where m < n. If the common ratio of the progression is an integer r, then the smallest possible value of r + n - m is

  • A-2Correct answer
  • B6
  • C2
  • D-4

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (−2) What to find. Let the m-th and n-th terms of a geometric progression be 34 and 12, respectively, where m < n. If the common ratio of the progression is an integer r, then the smallest possib… Setup. GP with a_m=34, a_n=12, m<n, integer common ratio r; minimize r+n−m. Steps. 1. rn−m=16. 2. Integer solutions (r,k) with k=n−m≥1 include (2,4),(4,2),(16,1),(−2,4),(−4,2). 3. Values of r+k: 6,6,17,2,−2. 4. Minimum −2. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - B (6), C (2), D (−4): Not the minimum valid r+k. Conclusion. −2 → A. Verification. With the keyed result A, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q67Quantitative Ability·Time, Speed & Distance

A and B are two points on a straight line. Ram runs from A to B while Rahim runs from B to A. After crossing each other, Ram and Rahim reach their destinations in one minute and four minutes, respectively. If they start at the same time, then the ratio of Ram's speed to Rahim's speed is

  • A2 : 1
  • B2 : 1Correct answer
  • C1 : 2
  • D1 : 2

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (2 : 1) What to find. A and B are two points on a straight line. Ram runs from A to B while Rahim runs from B to A. After crossing each other, Ram and Rahim reach their destinations in one minute and… Setup. After crossing, Ram needs 1 min and Rahim 4 min to finish; speed ratio. Steps. Translate the stem into an equation or counting model. v_Ram : v_Rahim = t_Rahim : t_Ram = 4:1 = 2:1. Keep every domain restriction (positivity, integrality, uniqueness) visible while simplifying. At the end, substitute the candidate back into the original condition to confirm consistency. Why other options fail. - A (2:1), C (1:2), D (1:2): Wrong root or reciprocal. Conclusion. 2:1 → B.
Q68Quantitative Ability·Time, Speed & Distance

In a car race, car A beats car B by 45 km, car B beats car C by 50km, and car A beats C by 90 km. the distance (in km) over which the race has been conducted is

  • A550
  • B500
  • C475
  • D450Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (450) What to find. In a car race, car A beats car B by 45 km, car B beats car C by 50km, and car A beats C by 90 km. the distance (in km) over which the race has been conducted is Setup. A beats B by 45 km, B beats C by 50 km, A beats C by 90 km; race distance d. Steps. 1. vA/vB=dd−45, vB/vC=dd−50, vA/vC=dd−90. 2. Product identity ⇒ 3. d(d−90)=(d−45)(d−50) ⇒ 4. 5d=2250 ⇒ 5. d=450. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (550), B (500), C (475): Fail the speed-ratio product. Conclusion. 450 → D.
Q69Quantitative Ability·Triangles

From an interior point of an equilateral triangle, perpendiculars are drawn on all three sides. The sum of the lengths of the three perpendiculars is s. Then the area of triangle is

  • A2 s23
  • Bs22 3
  • C3 s22
  • Ds23Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (s23) What to find. From an interior point of an equilateral triangle, perpendiculars are drawn on all three sides. The sum of the lengths of the three perpendiculars is s. Then the area of triangl… Setup. Equilateral triangle; perpendiculars from an interior point to the three sides sum to s; area. Steps. 1. Viviani: s equals the altitude. 2. With altitude s=(frac{3}{2})a, area=(frac{3}{4})a2=s2/3. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A, B, C: Incorrect conversion from altitude to area. Conclusion. s23 → D. Verification. With the keyed result D, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q70Quantitative Ability·Sets & Venn Diagrams

Students in a college have to choose at least two subjects from Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics. The number of students choosing all three subjects is 18, choosing Mathematics as one of their subjects is 23 and choosing Physics as one of their subjects is 25. The smallest possible number of students who could choose Chemistry as one of their subjects is

  • A19
  • B22
  • C20Correct answer
  • D21

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (20) What to find. Students in a college have to choose at least two subjects from Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics. The number of students choosing all three subjects is 18, choosing Mathematic… Setup. Students take ≥2 of {C,M,P}; all three: 18; Math: 23; Physics: 25; minimize Chemistry count. Steps. 1. Let MP-only = x. 2. Then MC-only + x =5 and PC-only + x =7. 3. Chemistry =18+MC+PC=18+(5−x)+(7−x)=30−2x. 4. Minimize by maximizing x≤5 ⇒ 5. x=5 ⇒ 6. Chemistry=20. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (19): Requires x>5, impossible. - B (22), D (21): Not minimal. Conclusion. 20 → C.
Q71Quantitative Ability·Profit, Loss & Discount

Anil buys 12 toys and labels each with the same selling price. He sells 8 toys initially at 20% discount on the labeled price. Then he sells the remaining 4 toys at an additional 25% discount on the discounted price. Thus, he gets a total of Rs 2112, and makes a 10% profit. With no discounts, his percentage of profit would have been

  • A60
  • B54
  • C55
  • D50Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (50) What to find. Anil buys 12 toys and labels each with the same selling price. He sells 8 toys initially at 20% discount on the labeled price. Then he sells the remaining 4 toys at an additiona… Setup. 12 toys labeled L; 8 sold at 0.8L; 4 at 0.6L; revenue 2112 with 10% profit; profit % if no discount. Steps. 1. 8.8L=2112 ⇒ 2. L=240. 3. Cost=2112/1.1=1920. 4. Full label revenue=2880 ⇒ 5. profit 50%. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (60), B (54), C (55): Wrong discount stacking. Conclusion. 50 → D.
Q72Quantitative Ability·Surds & Indices

For real x, the maximum possible value of x1 + x4 is

  • A12Correct answer
  • B12
  • C13
  • D1

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (12) What to find. Maximum of x1 + x4 for real x. Setup. For x ≠ 0, rewrite x1 + x4 = 1x-2 + x2 (taking the sign of x separately; the maximum magnitude is the same). Steps. 1. By AM-GM, x2 + x-2 ≥ 2, with equality at x2 = 1. 2. Hence |x1 + x4| ≤ 12. 3. At x = ±1 the bound is attained, so the maximum value is 12. Conclusion. A.
Q73Quantitative Ability·Time & WorkTITA

John takes twice as much time as Jack to finish a job. Jack and Jim together take one-thirds of the time to finish the job than John takes working alone. Moreover, in order to finish the job, John takes three days more than that taken by three of them working together. In how many days will Jim finish the job working alone?

Answer: 4

Show explanation
Answer:4 What to find. John takes twice as much time as Jack to finish a job. Jack and Jim together take one-thirds of the time to finish the job than John takes working alone. Moreover, in order to f… Setup. John takes twice Jack’s time. Jack+Jim take one-third of John’s solo time. John takes 3 days more than all three together. Jim alone? Steps. 1. Jack days j ⇒ 2. John 2j. 3. Jack+Jim time 2j34. Jim’s rate gives Jim days m=2j. 5. Three together finish in j/2 days. 6. Then 2j=j/2+3 ⇒ Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Conclusion. 4 days.
Q74Quantitative Ability·Logarithms

The value of loga(ab) + logb(ba), for 1 < a ≤ b cannot be equal to

  • A−0.5
  • B1Correct answer
  • C0
  • D−1

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (1) What to find. The value of loga(ab) + logb(ba), for 1 < a ≤ b cannot be equal to Setup. 1<a≤b; can log_a(ab)+log_b(b/a) equal which value? Steps. 1. Equals 2−(t+1t) with t=log_a b≥1, hence ≤0. 2. Value 1 is positive, impossible. 3. 0, −0.5, −1 are attainable. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - A (−0.5), C (0), D (−1): Attainable. Conclusion. Cannot be 1 → B. Verification. With the keyed result B, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q75Quantitative Ability·InequalitiesTITA

If x and y are non-negative integers such that x + 9 = z, y + 1 = z and x + y < z + 5,then the maximum possible value of 2x + y?

Answer: 23

Show explanation
Answer:23 What to find. If x and y are non-negative integers such that x + 9 = z, y + 1 = z and x + y < z + 5,then the maximum possible value of 2x + y? Setup. Nonnegative integers x,y with x+9=z, y+1=z, x+y<z+5; maximize 2x+y. Steps. 1. y=x+8, z=x+9, and x<6. 2. Max at x=5: 2 × 5+13=23. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Conclusion. 23. Verification. With the keyed result 23, the stem’s primary relation holds and no secondary inequality or counting bound is violated. Alternative candidates nearby fail at least one explicit condition in the setup.
Q76Quantitative Ability·Circles

Let C be a circle of radius 5 meters having center at O. Let PQ be a chord of C that passes through points A and B where A is located 4 meters north of O and B is located3 meters east of O. Then, the length of PQ, in meters, is nearest to

  • A8.8Correct answer
  • B7.2
  • C7.8
  • D6.6

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (8.8) What to find. Let C be a circle of radius 5 meters having center at O. Let PQ be a chord of C that passes through points A and B where A is located 4 meters north of O and B is located3 meter… Setup. Circle radius 5 about O; chord through A (4 m north of O) and B (3 m east of O); length nearest. Steps. 1. Line AB: 4x+3y−12=0. 2. Distance from O is 125=2.4. 3. Half-chord 25−5.76=19.24≈4.386 ⇒ 4. full ≈8.77≈8.8. Work the algebra left-to-right without dropping constants; then re-enter the keyed value into the stem’s primary equation as a sanity check. Why other options fail. - B (7.2), C (7.8), D (6.6): Wrong perpendicular distance. Conclusion. 8.8 → A.

Answer key

Quick reference — click a question number to jump to the full solution.

Q#SectionAnswerTopic
1VARCAReading Comprehension
2VARCBReading Comprehension
3VARCDReading Comprehension
4VARCCReading Comprehension
5VARCAReading Comprehension
6VARCDReading Comprehension
7VARCDReading Comprehension
8VARCBReading Comprehension
9VARCCReading Comprehension
10VARCCReading Comprehension
11VARCDReading Comprehension
12VARCBReading Comprehension
13VARCAReading Comprehension
14VARCDReading Comprehension
15VARCDReading Comprehension
16VARCDReading Comprehension
17VARCDReading Comprehension
18VARCAReading Comprehension
19VARC2413Verbal Ability
20VARC4Verbal Ability
21VARC2143Verbal Ability
22VARC1342Verbal Ability
23VARCCVerbal Ability
24VARCDVerbal Ability
25VARC2Verbal Ability
26VARCBVerbal Ability
27DILR2Logical Reasoning
28DILR9Logical Reasoning
29DILR6Logical Reasoning
30DILR6Logical Reasoning
31DILRBLogical Reasoning
32DILRALogical Reasoning
33DILRBLogical Reasoning
34DILRBLogical Reasoning
35DILRALogical Reasoning
36DILRDLogical Reasoning
37DILR9Data Interpretation
38DILR11Logical Reasoning
39DILRDLogical Reasoning
40DILRALogical Reasoning
41DILRALogical Reasoning
42DILRAData Interpretation
43DILRBData Interpretation
44DILRDData Interpretation
45DILRBData Interpretation
46DILRDData Interpretation
47DILRCLogical Reasoning
48DILRALogical Reasoning
49DILRALogical Reasoning
50DILRCLogical Reasoning
51QA800Quantitative Ability
52QA17Quantitative Ability
53QACQuantitative Ability
54QA90000Quantitative Ability
55QABQuantitative Ability
56QAAQuantitative Ability
57QA315Quantitative Ability
58QA2704Quantitative Ability
59QACQuantitative Ability
60QACQuantitative Ability
61QAAQuantitative Ability
62QA10Quantitative Ability
63QADQuantitative Ability
64QACQuantitative Ability
65QACQuantitative Ability
66QAAQuantitative Ability
67QABQuantitative Ability
68QADQuantitative Ability
69QADQuantitative Ability
70QACQuantitative Ability
71QADQuantitative Ability
72QAAQuantitative Ability
73QA4Quantitative Ability
74QABQuantitative Ability
75QA23Quantitative Ability
76QAAQuantitative Ability

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