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CAT 2023 Slot 3 answer key with solutions

This is the complete CAT 2023 Slot 3 question paper with answer key and solutions — 66 questions across VARC, DILR, QA, 2h with sectional timers. Three sequential sections with sectional timers. MCQ negative marking; TITA has none. Browse the full paper free here; attempting it under timed conditions on MBACracked requires Pro.

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VARC(24 questions)

Q1Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Steven Pinker’s new book, “Rationality: What It is, Why it Seems Scarce, Why It Matters,” offers a pragmatic dose of measured optimism, presenting rationality as a fragile but achievable ideal in personal and civic life. . . . Pinker’'s ambition to illuminate such a crucial topic offers the welcome prospect of a return to sanity. . . . It's no small achievement to make formal logic, game theory, statistics and Bayesian reasoning delightful topics full of charm and relevance. It's also plausible to believe that a wider application of the rational tools he analyzes would improve the world in important ways. His primer on statistics and scientific uncertainty is particularly timely and should be required reading before consuming any news about the COVID pandemic. More broadly, he argues that less media coverage of shocking but vanishingly rare events, from shark attacks to adverse vaccine reactions, would help prevent dangerous overreactions, fatalism and the diversion of finite resources away from solvable but less-dramatic issues, like malnutrition in the developing world. It's a reasonable critique, and Pinker is not the first to make it. But analyzing the political economy of journalism — its funding structures, ownership concentration and increasing reliance on social media shares — would have given a fuller picture of why so much coverage is so misguided and what we might do about it. Pinker’s main focus is the sort of conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. Skill in this domain maps directly onto the navigation of many real-world problems, and Pinker shows how greater mastery of the tools of rationality can improve decision-making in medical, legal, financial and many other contexts in which we must act on uncertain and shifting information. . . . Despite the undeniable power of the sort of rationality he describes, many of the deepest insights in the history of science, math, music and art strike their originators in moments of epiphany. From the 19th century chemist Friedrich August Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene to any of Mozart's symphonies, much extraordinary human achievement is not a product of conscious, sequential reasoning. Even Plato’s Socrates — who anticipated many of Pinker's points by nearly 2,500 years, showing the virtue of knowing what you do not know and examining all premises in arguments, not simply trusting speakers’ authority or charisma — attributed many of his most profound insights to dreams and visions. Conscious reasoning is helpful in sorting the wheat from the chaff, but it would be interesting to consider the hidden aquifers that make much of the grain grow in the first place. The role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior is also underexplored. Pinker recognizes that rationality “is not just a cognitive virtue but a moral one.” But this profoundly important point, one subtly explored by ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle, doesn’t really get developed. This is a shame, since possessing the right sort of moral character is arguably a precondition for using rationality in beneficial ways.

The author endorses Pinker’s views on the importance of logical reasoning as it:

  • Afocuses public attention on real issues like development rather than sensational events.
  • Bprovides a moral compass for resolving important ethical dilemmas.
  • Chelps people to gain expertise in statistics and other scientific disciplines.
  • Dequips people with the ability to tackle challenging practical problems.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D Author backs Pinker’s tools as practically useful for hard civic/personal problems—equipping people to tackle challenging practical issues—more than as a finished moral compass. Why the others fail: • A — Media/attention point is Pinker’s, but endorsement here is broader tool-use. • B — Moral dimension is noted as underdeveloped, not the endorsement’s core. • C — Stats expertise is one primer, not the whole endorsement.
Q2Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Steven Pinker’s new book, “Rationality: What It is, Why it Seems Scarce, Why It Matters,” offers a pragmatic dose of measured optimism, presenting rationality as a fragile but achievable ideal in personal and civic life. . . . Pinker’'s ambition to illuminate such a crucial topic offers the welcome prospect of a return to sanity. . . . It's no small achievement to make formal logic, game theory, statistics and Bayesian reasoning delightful topics full of charm and relevance. It's also plausible to believe that a wider application of the rational tools he analyzes would improve the world in important ways. His primer on statistics and scientific uncertainty is particularly timely and should be required reading before consuming any news about the COVID pandemic. More broadly, he argues that less media coverage of shocking but vanishingly rare events, from shark attacks to adverse vaccine reactions, would help prevent dangerous overreactions, fatalism and the diversion of finite resources away from solvable but less-dramatic issues, like malnutrition in the developing world. It's a reasonable critique, and Pinker is not the first to make it. But analyzing the political economy of journalism — its funding structures, ownership concentration and increasing reliance on social media shares — would have given a fuller picture of why so much coverage is so misguided and what we might do about it. Pinker’s main focus is the sort of conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. Skill in this domain maps directly onto the navigation of many real-world problems, and Pinker shows how greater mastery of the tools of rationality can improve decision-making in medical, legal, financial and many other contexts in which we must act on uncertain and shifting information. . . . Despite the undeniable power of the sort of rationality he describes, many of the deepest insights in the history of science, math, music and art strike their originators in moments of epiphany. From the 19th century chemist Friedrich August Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene to any of Mozart's symphonies, much extraordinary human achievement is not a product of conscious, sequential reasoning. Even Plato’s Socrates — who anticipated many of Pinker's points by nearly 2,500 years, showing the virtue of knowing what you do not know and examining all premises in arguments, not simply trusting speakers’ authority or charisma — attributed many of his most profound insights to dreams and visions. Conscious reasoning is helpful in sorting the wheat from the chaff, but it would be interesting to consider the hidden aquifers that make much of the grain grow in the first place. The role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior is also underexplored. Pinker recognizes that rationality “is not just a cognitive virtue but a moral one.” But this profoundly important point, one subtly explored by ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle, doesn’t really get developed. This is a shame, since possessing the right sort of moral character is arguably a precondition for using rationality in beneficial ways.

According to the author, for Pinker as well as the ancient Greek philosophers, rational thinking involves all of the following EXCEPT:

  • Athe belief that the ability to reason logically encompasses an ethical and moral dimension.
  • Ban awareness of underlying assumptions in an argument and gaps in one's own knowledge.
  • Carriving at independent conclusions irrespective of who is presenting the argument.
  • Dthe primacy of conscious sequential reasoning as the basis for seminal human achievements.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D EXCEPT: primacy of conscious sequential reasoning as the basis of seminal achievements is what the reviewer *questions* via Kekulé/Mozart—not shared Pinker/Greek doctrine. Why the others fail: • A — Rationality as moral as well as cognitive is endorsed as Pinker/Greek-compatible. • B — Awareness of assumptions/knowledge gaps fits rational virtue. • C — Independence from who argues is part of impersonal reason.
Q3Reading Comprehension·Vocabulary in Context

Steven Pinker’s new book, “Rationality: What It is, Why it Seems Scarce, Why It Matters,” offers a pragmatic dose of measured optimism, presenting rationality as a fragile but achievable ideal in personal and civic life. . . . Pinker’'s ambition to illuminate such a crucial topic offers the welcome prospect of a return to sanity. . . . It's no small achievement to make formal logic, game theory, statistics and Bayesian reasoning delightful topics full of charm and relevance. It's also plausible to believe that a wider application of the rational tools he analyzes would improve the world in important ways. His primer on statistics and scientific uncertainty is particularly timely and should be required reading before consuming any news about the COVID pandemic. More broadly, he argues that less media coverage of shocking but vanishingly rare events, from shark attacks to adverse vaccine reactions, would help prevent dangerous overreactions, fatalism and the diversion of finite resources away from solvable but less-dramatic issues, like malnutrition in the developing world. It's a reasonable critique, and Pinker is not the first to make it. But analyzing the political economy of journalism — its funding structures, ownership concentration and increasing reliance on social media shares — would have given a fuller picture of why so much coverage is so misguided and what we might do about it. Pinker’s main focus is the sort of conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. Skill in this domain maps directly onto the navigation of many real-world problems, and Pinker shows how greater mastery of the tools of rationality can improve decision-making in medical, legal, financial and many other contexts in which we must act on uncertain and shifting information. . . . Despite the undeniable power of the sort of rationality he describes, many of the deepest insights in the history of science, math, music and art strike their originators in moments of epiphany. From the 19th century chemist Friedrich August Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene to any of Mozart's symphonies, much extraordinary human achievement is not a product of conscious, sequential reasoning. Even Plato’s Socrates — who anticipated many of Pinker's points by nearly 2,500 years, showing the virtue of knowing what you do not know and examining all premises in arguments, not simply trusting speakers’ authority or charisma — attributed many of his most profound insights to dreams and visions. Conscious reasoning is helpful in sorting the wheat from the chaff, but it would be interesting to consider the hidden aquifers that make much of the grain grow in the first place. The role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior is also underexplored. Pinker recognizes that rationality “is not just a cognitive virtue but a moral one.” But this profoundly important point, one subtly explored by ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle, doesn’t really get developed. This is a shame, since possessing the right sort of moral character is arguably a precondition for using rationality in beneficial ways.

The author refers to the ancient Greek philosophers to:

  • Aindicate the various similarities between their thinking and Pinker's conclusions.
  • Breveal gaps in Pinker’s discussion of the importance of ethical considerations in rational behaviour.Correct answer
  • Chighlight the influence of their thinking on the development of Pinker’s arguments.
  • Dshow how dreams and visions have for centuries influenced subconscious behaviour and path breaking inventions.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B Greeks are invoked to show Pinker names rationality’s moral side but doesn’t develop it—revealing a gap. Why the others fail: • A — Similarities aren’t the point; the shortfall is. • C — Influence on Pinker’s construction isn’t claimed. • D — Dreams/visions belong to the intuition examples, not the Greek citation’s job.
Q4Reading Comprehension·Structure & Organization

Steven Pinker’s new book, “Rationality: What It is, Why it Seems Scarce, Why It Matters,” offers a pragmatic dose of measured optimism, presenting rationality as a fragile but achievable ideal in personal and civic life. . . . Pinker’'s ambition to illuminate such a crucial topic offers the welcome prospect of a return to sanity. . . . It's no small achievement to make formal logic, game theory, statistics and Bayesian reasoning delightful topics full of charm and relevance. It's also plausible to believe that a wider application of the rational tools he analyzes would improve the world in important ways. His primer on statistics and scientific uncertainty is particularly timely and should be required reading before consuming any news about the COVID pandemic. More broadly, he argues that less media coverage of shocking but vanishingly rare events, from shark attacks to adverse vaccine reactions, would help prevent dangerous overreactions, fatalism and the diversion of finite resources away from solvable but less-dramatic issues, like malnutrition in the developing world. It's a reasonable critique, and Pinker is not the first to make it. But analyzing the political economy of journalism — its funding structures, ownership concentration and increasing reliance on social media shares — would have given a fuller picture of why so much coverage is so misguided and what we might do about it. Pinker’s main focus is the sort of conscious, sequential reasoning that can track the steps in a geometric proof or an argument in formal logic. Skill in this domain maps directly onto the navigation of many real-world problems, and Pinker shows how greater mastery of the tools of rationality can improve decision-making in medical, legal, financial and many other contexts in which we must act on uncertain and shifting information. . . . Despite the undeniable power of the sort of rationality he describes, many of the deepest insights in the history of science, math, music and art strike their originators in moments of epiphany. From the 19th century chemist Friedrich August Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene to any of Mozart's symphonies, much extraordinary human achievement is not a product of conscious, sequential reasoning. Even Plato’s Socrates — who anticipated many of Pinker's points by nearly 2,500 years, showing the virtue of knowing what you do not know and examining all premises in arguments, not simply trusting speakers’ authority or charisma — attributed many of his most profound insights to dreams and visions. Conscious reasoning is helpful in sorting the wheat from the chaff, but it would be interesting to consider the hidden aquifers that make much of the grain grow in the first place. The role of moral and ethical education in promoting rational behavior is also underexplored. Pinker recognizes that rationality “is not just a cognitive virtue but a moral one.” But this profoundly important point, one subtly explored by ancient Greek philosophers like Plato and Aristotle, doesn’t really get developed. This is a shame, since possessing the right sort of moral character is arguably a precondition for using rationality in beneficial ways.

The author mentions Kekulé’s discovery of the structure of benzene and Mozart's symphonies to illustrate the point that:

  • Aunlike the sciences, human achievements in other fields are a mix of logical reasoning and spontaneous epiphanies.
  • Bgreat innovations across various fields can stem from flashes of intuition and are not always propelled by logical thinking.Correct answer
  • Cit is not just the creative arts, but also scientific fields that have benefitted from flashes of creativity.
  • DPinker’s conclusions on sequential reasoning are belied by European achievements which, in the past, were more rooted in unconscious bursts of genius.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B Kekulé and Mozart show major innovations can arrive as intuitive flashes, not only sequential logic—B. Why the others fail: • A — Splits sciences vs other fields; Kekulé is scientific. • C — Underplays the challenge to logic-first primacy. • D — Not a Europe-specific belied-conclusions claim.
Q5Reading Comprehension·Main Idea / Purpose

In 2006, the Met art museum in the US agreed to return the Euphronios krater, a masterpiece Greek urn that had been a museum draw since 1972. In 2007, the Getty art museum in the US agreed to retum 40 objects to Italy, including a marble Aphrodite, in the midst of looting scandals. And in December, Sotheby's and a private owner agreed to return an ancient Khmer statue of a warrior, pulled from auction two years before, to Cambodia. Cultural property, or patrimony, laws limit the transfer of cultural property outside the source country’s territory, including outright export prohibitions and national ownership laws. Most art historians, archaeologists, museum officials and policymakers portray cultural property laws in general as invaluable tools for counteracting the ugly legacy of Western cultural imperialism. During the late 19th and early 20th century — an era former Met director Thomas Having called “the age of piracy” — American and European art museums acquired antiquities by hook or by crook, from grave robbers or souvenir collectors, bounty from digs and ancient sites in impoverished but art-rich source countries. Patrimony laws were intended to protect future archaeological discoveries against Western imperialist designs. . . . I surveyed 90 countries with one or more archaeological sites on UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list, and my study shows that in most cases the number of discovered sites diminishes sharply after a country passes a cultural property law. There are 222 archaeological sites listed for those 90 countries. When you look into the history of the sites, you see that all but 21 were discovered before the passage of cultural property laws. . . . Strict cultural patrimony laws are popular in most countries. But the downside may be that they reduce incentives for foreign governments, non governmental organizations and educational institutions to invest in overseas exploration because their efforts will not necessarily be rewarded by opportunities to hold, display and study what is uncovered. To the extent that source countries can fund their own archaeological projects, artifacts and sites may still be discovered. . . . The survey has far-reaching implications. It suggests that source countries, particularly in the developing world, should narrow their cultural property laws so that they can reap the benefits of new archaeological discoveries, which typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride. This does not mean these nations should abolish restrictions on foreign excavation and foreign claims to artifacts. China provides an interesting alternative approach for source nations eager for foreign archaeological investment. From 1935 to 2003, China had a restrictive cultural property law that prohibited foreign ownership of Chinese cultural artifacts. In those years, China's most significant archaeological discovery occurred by chance, in 1974, when peasant farmers accidentally uncovered ranks of buried terra cotta warriors, which are part of Emperor Qin's spectacular tomb system. In 2003, the Chinese government switched course, dropping its cultural property law and embracing collaborative international archaeological research. Since then, China has nominated 11 archaeological sites for inclusion in the World Heritage Site list, including eight in 2013, the most ever for China.

Which one of the following statements, if true, would undermine the central idea of the passage?

  • AMuseums established in economically deprived archaeologically-rich source countries can display the antiques discovered there.
  • BAffluent archaeologically-rich source countries can afford to carry out their own excavations.
  • CUNESCO finances archaeological research in poor, but archaeologically-rich source countries.Correct answer
  • DWestern countries will have to apologise to countries for looting their cultural property in the past century.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C Central idea: strict patrimony laws chill foreign-funded digs in poor source countries. If UNESCO already finances those digs, the funding-chill argument weakens. Why the others fail: • A — Local museums displaying finds doesn’t remove excavation-funding need. • B — Rich countries digging alone leaves poor countries’ problem intact. • D — Apologies don’t restore collaborative research incentives.
Q6Reading Comprehension·Main Idea / Purpose

In 2006, the Met art museum in the US agreed to return the Euphronios krater, a masterpiece Greek urn that had been a museum draw since 1972. In 2007, the Getty art museum in the US agreed to retum 40 objects to Italy, including a marble Aphrodite, in the midst of looting scandals. And in December, Sotheby's and a private owner agreed to return an ancient Khmer statue of a warrior, pulled from auction two years before, to Cambodia. Cultural property, or patrimony, laws limit the transfer of cultural property outside the source country’s territory, including outright export prohibitions and national ownership laws. Most art historians, archaeologists, museum officials and policymakers portray cultural property laws in general as invaluable tools for counteracting the ugly legacy of Western cultural imperialism. During the late 19th and early 20th century — an era former Met director Thomas Having called “the age of piracy” — American and European art museums acquired antiquities by hook or by crook, from grave robbers or souvenir collectors, bounty from digs and ancient sites in impoverished but art-rich source countries. Patrimony laws were intended to protect future archaeological discoveries against Western imperialist designs. . . . I surveyed 90 countries with one or more archaeological sites on UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list, and my study shows that in most cases the number of discovered sites diminishes sharply after a country passes a cultural property law. There are 222 archaeological sites listed for those 90 countries. When you look into the history of the sites, you see that all but 21 were discovered before the passage of cultural property laws. . . . Strict cultural patrimony laws are popular in most countries. But the downside may be that they reduce incentives for foreign governments, non governmental organizations and educational institutions to invest in overseas exploration because their efforts will not necessarily be rewarded by opportunities to hold, display and study what is uncovered. To the extent that source countries can fund their own archaeological projects, artifacts and sites may still be discovered. . . . The survey has far-reaching implications. It suggests that source countries, particularly in the developing world, should narrow their cultural property laws so that they can reap the benefits of new archaeological discoveries, which typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride. This does not mean these nations should abolish restrictions on foreign excavation and foreign claims to artifacts. China provides an interesting alternative approach for source nations eager for foreign archaeological investment. From 1935 to 2003, China had a restrictive cultural property law that prohibited foreign ownership of Chinese cultural artifacts. In those years, China's most significant archaeological discovery occurred by chance, in 1974, when peasant farmers accidentally uncovered ranks of buried terra cotta warriors, which are part of Emperor Qin's spectacular tomb system. In 2003, the Chinese government switched course, dropping its cultural property law and embracing collaborative international archaeological research. Since then, China has nominated 11 archaeological sites for inclusion in the World Heritage Site list, including eight in 2013, the most ever for China.

Which one of the following statements best expresses the paradox of patrimony laws?

  • AThey were aimed at protecting cultural property, but instead reduced new archaeological discoveries.Correct answer
  • BThey were aimed at protecting cultural property, but instead reduced business for auctioneers like Sotheby's.
  • CThey were intended to protect cultural property, but instead resulted in the withholding of national treasure from museums.
  • DThey were intended to protect cultural property, but instead resulted in the neglect of historical sites.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A Paradox: laws meant to protect patrimony instead reduce new archaeological discovery by deterring foreign collaboration. Why the others fail: • B — Auctioneer business isn’t the paradox’s core. • C — Withholding from museums is restitution politics, not the discovery paradox. • D — Site neglect isn’t the named mechanism.
Q7Reading Comprehension·Main Idea / Purpose

In 2006, the Met art museum in the US agreed to return the Euphronios krater, a masterpiece Greek urn that had been a museum draw since 1972. In 2007, the Getty art museum in the US agreed to retum 40 objects to Italy, including a marble Aphrodite, in the midst of looting scandals. And in December, Sotheby's and a private owner agreed to return an ancient Khmer statue of a warrior, pulled from auction two years before, to Cambodia. Cultural property, or patrimony, laws limit the transfer of cultural property outside the source country’s territory, including outright export prohibitions and national ownership laws. Most art historians, archaeologists, museum officials and policymakers portray cultural property laws in general as invaluable tools for counteracting the ugly legacy of Western cultural imperialism. During the late 19th and early 20th century — an era former Met director Thomas Having called “the age of piracy” — American and European art museums acquired antiquities by hook or by crook, from grave robbers or souvenir collectors, bounty from digs and ancient sites in impoverished but art-rich source countries. Patrimony laws were intended to protect future archaeological discoveries against Western imperialist designs. . . . I surveyed 90 countries with one or more archaeological sites on UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list, and my study shows that in most cases the number of discovered sites diminishes sharply after a country passes a cultural property law. There are 222 archaeological sites listed for those 90 countries. When you look into the history of the sites, you see that all but 21 were discovered before the passage of cultural property laws. . . . Strict cultural patrimony laws are popular in most countries. But the downside may be that they reduce incentives for foreign governments, non governmental organizations and educational institutions to invest in overseas exploration because their efforts will not necessarily be rewarded by opportunities to hold, display and study what is uncovered. To the extent that source countries can fund their own archaeological projects, artifacts and sites may still be discovered. . . . The survey has far-reaching implications. It suggests that source countries, particularly in the developing world, should narrow their cultural property laws so that they can reap the benefits of new archaeological discoveries, which typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride. This does not mean these nations should abolish restrictions on foreign excavation and foreign claims to artifacts. China provides an interesting alternative approach for source nations eager for foreign archaeological investment. From 1935 to 2003, China had a restrictive cultural property law that prohibited foreign ownership of Chinese cultural artifacts. In those years, China's most significant archaeological discovery occurred by chance, in 1974, when peasant farmers accidentally uncovered ranks of buried terra cotta warriors, which are part of Emperor Qin's spectacular tomb system. In 2003, the Chinese government switched course, dropping its cultural property law and embracing collaborative international archaeological research. Since then, China has nominated 11 archaeological sites for inclusion in the World Heritage Site list, including eight in 2013, the most ever for China.

It can be inferred from the passage that archaeological sites are considered important by some source countries because they:

  • Agive a boost to the tourism sector.Correct answer
  • Bare subject to strict patrimony laws.
  • Cgenerate funds for future discoveries.
  • Dare a symbol of Western imperialism.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A Some source countries value sites for tourism boost once inscribed/promoted—A is the inference drawn. Why the others fail: • B — Being under patrimony law is circular, not the “why important” motive. • C — Generating dig funds isn’t the tourism-facing reason highlighted. • D — Sites aren’t prized as symbols of Western imperialism.
Q8Reading Comprehension·Main Idea / Purpose

In 2006, the Met art museum in the US agreed to return the Euphronios krater, a masterpiece Greek urn that had been a museum draw since 1972. In 2007, the Getty art museum in the US agreed to retum 40 objects to Italy, including a marble Aphrodite, in the midst of looting scandals. And in December, Sotheby's and a private owner agreed to return an ancient Khmer statue of a warrior, pulled from auction two years before, to Cambodia. Cultural property, or patrimony, laws limit the transfer of cultural property outside the source country’s territory, including outright export prohibitions and national ownership laws. Most art historians, archaeologists, museum officials and policymakers portray cultural property laws in general as invaluable tools for counteracting the ugly legacy of Western cultural imperialism. During the late 19th and early 20th century — an era former Met director Thomas Having called “the age of piracy” — American and European art museums acquired antiquities by hook or by crook, from grave robbers or souvenir collectors, bounty from digs and ancient sites in impoverished but art-rich source countries. Patrimony laws were intended to protect future archaeological discoveries against Western imperialist designs. . . . I surveyed 90 countries with one or more archaeological sites on UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list, and my study shows that in most cases the number of discovered sites diminishes sharply after a country passes a cultural property law. There are 222 archaeological sites listed for those 90 countries. When you look into the history of the sites, you see that all but 21 were discovered before the passage of cultural property laws. . . . Strict cultural patrimony laws are popular in most countries. But the downside may be that they reduce incentives for foreign governments, non governmental organizations and educational institutions to invest in overseas exploration because their efforts will not necessarily be rewarded by opportunities to hold, display and study what is uncovered. To the extent that source countries can fund their own archaeological projects, artifacts and sites may still be discovered. . . . The survey has far-reaching implications. It suggests that source countries, particularly in the developing world, should narrow their cultural property laws so that they can reap the benefits of new archaeological discoveries, which typically increase tourism and enhance cultural pride. This does not mean these nations should abolish restrictions on foreign excavation and foreign claims to artifacts. China provides an interesting alternative approach for source nations eager for foreign archaeological investment. From 1935 to 2003, China had a restrictive cultural property law that prohibited foreign ownership of Chinese cultural artifacts. In those years, China's most significant archaeological discovery occurred by chance, in 1974, when peasant farmers accidentally uncovered ranks of buried terra cotta warriors, which are part of Emperor Qin's spectacular tomb system. In 2003, the Chinese government switched course, dropping its cultural property law and embracing collaborative international archaeological research. Since then, China has nominated 11 archaeological sites for inclusion in the World Heritage Site list, including eight in 2013, the most ever for China.

From the passage we can infer that the author is likely to advise poor, but archaeologically-rich source countries to do all of the following, EXCEPT:

  • Aallow foreign countries to analyse and exhibit the archaeological finds made in the source country.
  • Badopt China’s strategy of dropping its cultural property laws and carrying out archaeological research through international collaboration.
  • Cfund institutes in other countries to undertake archaeological exploration in the source country reaping the benefits of cutting-edge techniques.Correct answer
  • Dto find ways to motivate other countries to finance archaeological explorations in their country.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C EXCEPT: author wouldn’t advise poor countries to *fund foreign institutes* to dig at home—that reverses the needed capital flow. He wants others to finance collaboration in-country. Why the others fail: • A — Allowing analysis/exhibition abroad can unlock partnerships. • B — China’s drop-and-collaborate path is praised. • D — Motivating foreign finance matches the remedy.
Q9Reading Comprehension·Inference

Understanding romantic aesthetics is not a simple undertaking for reasons that are internal to the nature of the subject. Distinguished scholars, such as Arthur Lovejoy, Northrop Frye and Isaiah Berlin, have remarked on the notorious challenges facing any attempt to define romanticism. Lovejoy, for example, claimed that romanticism is “the scandal of literary history and criticism” . . . The main difficulty in studying the romantics, according to him, is the lack of any “single real entity, or type of entity” that the concept “romanticism” designates. Lovejoy concluded, “the word ‘romantic’ has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing” ... The more specific task of characterizing romantic aesthetics adds to these difficulties an air of paradox. Conventionally, “aesthetics” refers to a theory concerning beauty and art or the branch of philosophy that studies these topics. However, many of the romantics rejected the identification of aesthetics with a circumscribed domain of human life that is separated from the practical and theoretical domains of life. The most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life. Being fundamental to human existence, beauty and art should be a central ingredient not only in a philosophical or artistic life, but also in the lives of ordinary men and women. Another challenge for any attempt to characterize romantic aesthetics lies in the fact that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views of art and beauty are, for the most part, to be found not in developed theoretical accounts, but in fragments, aphorisms and poems, which are often more elusive and suggestive than conclusive. Nevertheless, in spite of these challenges the task of characterizing romantic aesthetics is neither impossible nor undesirable, as numerous thinkers responding to Lovejoy’s radical skepticism have noted. While warning against a reductive definition of romanticism, Berlin, for example, still heralded the need for a general characterization: “Although one does have a certain sympathy with Lovejoy’s despair...he is in this instance mistaken. There was a romantic movement...and it is important to discover what it is” ... Recent attempts to characterize romanticism and to stress its contemporary relevance follow this path. Instead of overlooking the undeniable differences between the variety of romanticisms of different nations that Lovejoy had stressed, such studies attempt to characterize romanticism, not in terms of a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place, but in terms of “particular philosophical questions and concems” ... While the German, British and French romantics are all considered, the central protagonists in the following are the German romantics. Two reasons explain this focus: first, because it has paved the way for the other romanticisms, German romanticism has a pride of place among the different national romanticisms . . . Second, the aesthetic outlook that was developed in Germany roughly between 1796 and 1801-02 — the period that corresponds to the heyday of what is known as “Early Romanticism” . . .— offers the most philosophical expression of romanticism since it is grounded primarily in the epistemological, metaphysical, ethical, and political concerns that the German romantics discerned in the aftermath of Kant's philosophy.

Which one of the following statements is NOT supported by the passage?

  • ACharacterising romantic aesthetics is both possible and desirable, despite the challenges involved.
  • BRomantic aesthetics are primarily expressed through fragments, aphorisms, and poems.
  • CRecent studies on romanticism seek to refute the differences between national romanticisms.Correct answer
  • DMany romantics rejected the idea of aesthetics as a domain separate from other aspects of life.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C NOT supported: recent studies don’t seek to *refute* national differences; they avoid single definition/time/place to study shared concerns across romanticisms. Why the others fail: • A — Characterising romantic aesthetics remains possible/desirable despite difficulty. • B — Fragments/aphorisms/poems as vehicles are discussed. • D — Many romantics reject aesthetics as a sealed-off domain.
Q10Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Understanding romantic aesthetics is not a simple undertaking for reasons that are internal to the nature of the subject. Distinguished scholars, such as Arthur Lovejoy, Northrop Frye and Isaiah Berlin, have remarked on the notorious challenges facing any attempt to define romanticism. Lovejoy, for example, claimed that romanticism is “the scandal of literary history and criticism” . . . The main difficulty in studying the romantics, according to him, is the lack of any “single real entity, or type of entity” that the concept “romanticism” designates. Lovejoy concluded, “the word ‘romantic’ has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing” ... The more specific task of characterizing romantic aesthetics adds to these difficulties an air of paradox. Conventionally, “aesthetics” refers to a theory concerning beauty and art or the branch of philosophy that studies these topics. However, many of the romantics rejected the identification of aesthetics with a circumscribed domain of human life that is separated from the practical and theoretical domains of life. The most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life. Being fundamental to human existence, beauty and art should be a central ingredient not only in a philosophical or artistic life, but also in the lives of ordinary men and women. Another challenge for any attempt to characterize romantic aesthetics lies in the fact that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views of art and beauty are, for the most part, to be found not in developed theoretical accounts, but in fragments, aphorisms and poems, which are often more elusive and suggestive than conclusive. Nevertheless, in spite of these challenges the task of characterizing romantic aesthetics is neither impossible nor undesirable, as numerous thinkers responding to Lovejoy’s radical skepticism have noted. While warning against a reductive definition of romanticism, Berlin, for example, still heralded the need for a general characterization: “Although one does have a certain sympathy with Lovejoy’s despair...he is in this instance mistaken. There was a romantic movement...and it is important to discover what it is” ... Recent attempts to characterize romanticism and to stress its contemporary relevance follow this path. Instead of overlooking the undeniable differences between the variety of romanticisms of different nations that Lovejoy had stressed, such studies attempt to characterize romanticism, not in terms of a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place, but in terms of “particular philosophical questions and concems” ... While the German, British and French romantics are all considered, the central protagonists in the following are the German romantics. Two reasons explain this focus: first, because it has paved the way for the other romanticisms, German romanticism has a pride of place among the different national romanticisms . . . Second, the aesthetic outlook that was developed in Germany roughly between 1796 and 1801-02 — the period that corresponds to the heyday of what is known as “Early Romanticism” . . .— offers the most philosophical expression of romanticism since it is grounded primarily in the epistemological, metaphysical, ethical, and political concerns that the German romantics discerned in the aftermath of Kant's philosophy.

According to the passage, recent studies on romanticism avoid “a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place” because they:

  • Aprefer to focus on the fundamental concerns of the romantics.Correct answer
  • Bseek to discredit Lovejoy’s scepticism regarding romanticism.
  • Cunderstand that the variety of romanticisms renders a general analysis impossible.
  • Dprefer to highlight the paradox of romantic aesthetics as a concept.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A Avoiding single definition/time/place lets scholars track romantics’ fundamental philosophical concerns (esp. post-Kant German early romanticism). Why the others fail: • B — Not mainly a brief against Lovejoy. • C — They don’t conclude general analysis is impossible. • D — Paradox is noted; avoidance motive is focus on concerns.
Q11Reading Comprehension·Inference

Understanding romantic aesthetics is not a simple undertaking for reasons that are internal to the nature of the subject. Distinguished scholars, such as Arthur Lovejoy, Northrop Frye and Isaiah Berlin, have remarked on the notorious challenges facing any attempt to define romanticism. Lovejoy, for example, claimed that romanticism is “the scandal of literary history and criticism” . . . The main difficulty in studying the romantics, according to him, is the lack of any “single real entity, or type of entity” that the concept “romanticism” designates. Lovejoy concluded, “the word ‘romantic’ has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing” ... The more specific task of characterizing romantic aesthetics adds to these difficulties an air of paradox. Conventionally, “aesthetics” refers to a theory concerning beauty and art or the branch of philosophy that studies these topics. However, many of the romantics rejected the identification of aesthetics with a circumscribed domain of human life that is separated from the practical and theoretical domains of life. The most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life. Being fundamental to human existence, beauty and art should be a central ingredient not only in a philosophical or artistic life, but also in the lives of ordinary men and women. Another challenge for any attempt to characterize romantic aesthetics lies in the fact that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views of art and beauty are, for the most part, to be found not in developed theoretical accounts, but in fragments, aphorisms and poems, which are often more elusive and suggestive than conclusive. Nevertheless, in spite of these challenges the task of characterizing romantic aesthetics is neither impossible nor undesirable, as numerous thinkers responding to Lovejoy’s radical skepticism have noted. While warning against a reductive definition of romanticism, Berlin, for example, still heralded the need for a general characterization: “Although one does have a certain sympathy with Lovejoy’s despair...he is in this instance mistaken. There was a romantic movement...and it is important to discover what it is” ... Recent attempts to characterize romanticism and to stress its contemporary relevance follow this path. Instead of overlooking the undeniable differences between the variety of romanticisms of different nations that Lovejoy had stressed, such studies attempt to characterize romanticism, not in terms of a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place, but in terms of “particular philosophical questions and concems” ... While the German, British and French romantics are all considered, the central protagonists in the following are the German romantics. Two reasons explain this focus: first, because it has paved the way for the other romanticisms, German romanticism has a pride of place among the different national romanticisms . . . Second, the aesthetic outlook that was developed in Germany roughly between 1796 and 1801-02 — the period that corresponds to the heyday of what is known as “Early Romanticism” . . .— offers the most philosophical expression of romanticism since it is grounded primarily in the epistemological, metaphysical, ethical, and political concerns that the German romantics discerned in the aftermath of Kant's philosophy.

The main difficulty in studying romanticism is the:

  • Acontroversial and scandalous history of romantic literature.
  • Belusive and suggestive nature of romantic aesthetics.
  • Cabsence of written accounts by romantic poets and artists.
  • Dlack of clear conceptual contours of the domain.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D Main difficulty: no single real entity—“romanticism” lacks clear conceptual contours. Why the others fail: • A — “Scandal” is Lovejoy’s metaphor for definitional mess, not a sordid literary history. • B — Elusive aesthetics is an added paradox, not the main difficulty named first. • C — Absence of written accounts isn’t claimed.
Q12Reading Comprehension·Specific Detail

Understanding romantic aesthetics is not a simple undertaking for reasons that are internal to the nature of the subject. Distinguished scholars, such as Arthur Lovejoy, Northrop Frye and Isaiah Berlin, have remarked on the notorious challenges facing any attempt to define romanticism. Lovejoy, for example, claimed that romanticism is “the scandal of literary history and criticism” . . . The main difficulty in studying the romantics, according to him, is the lack of any “single real entity, or type of entity” that the concept “romanticism” designates. Lovejoy concluded, “the word ‘romantic’ has come to mean so many things that, by itself, it means nothing” ... The more specific task of characterizing romantic aesthetics adds to these difficulties an air of paradox. Conventionally, “aesthetics” refers to a theory concerning beauty and art or the branch of philosophy that studies these topics. However, many of the romantics rejected the identification of aesthetics with a circumscribed domain of human life that is separated from the practical and theoretical domains of life. The most characteristic romantic commitment is to the idea that the character of art and beauty and of our engagement with them should shape all aspects of human life. Being fundamental to human existence, beauty and art should be a central ingredient not only in a philosophical or artistic life, but also in the lives of ordinary men and women. Another challenge for any attempt to characterize romantic aesthetics lies in the fact that most of the romantics were poets and artists whose views of art and beauty are, for the most part, to be found not in developed theoretical accounts, but in fragments, aphorisms and poems, which are often more elusive and suggestive than conclusive. Nevertheless, in spite of these challenges the task of characterizing romantic aesthetics is neither impossible nor undesirable, as numerous thinkers responding to Lovejoy’s radical skepticism have noted. While warning against a reductive definition of romanticism, Berlin, for example, still heralded the need for a general characterization: “Although one does have a certain sympathy with Lovejoy’s despair...he is in this instance mistaken. There was a romantic movement...and it is important to discover what it is” ... Recent attempts to characterize romanticism and to stress its contemporary relevance follow this path. Instead of overlooking the undeniable differences between the variety of romanticisms of different nations that Lovejoy had stressed, such studies attempt to characterize romanticism, not in terms of a single definition, a specific time, or a specific place, but in terms of “particular philosophical questions and concems” ... While the German, British and French romantics are all considered, the central protagonists in the following are the German romantics. Two reasons explain this focus: first, because it has paved the way for the other romanticisms, German romanticism has a pride of place among the different national romanticisms . . . Second, the aesthetic outlook that was developed in Germany roughly between 1796 and 1801-02 — the period that corresponds to the heyday of what is known as “Early Romanticism” . . .— offers the most philosophical expression of romanticism since it is grounded primarily in the epistemological, metaphysical, ethical, and political concerns that the German romantics discerned in the aftermath of Kant's philosophy.

According to the romantics, aesthetics:

  • Ashould be confined to a specific domain separate from the practical and theoretical aspects of life.
  • Bpermeates all aspects of human life, philosophical and mundane.Correct answer
  • Cis primarily the concern of philosophers and artists, rather than of ordinary people.
  • Dis widely considered to be irrelevant to human existence.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B Romantics refuse boxing aesthetics off from practical/theoretical life—aesthetics permeates life. Why the others fail: • A — That sealed-domain view is what they reject. • C — Not limited to philosophers/artists. • D — Irrelevant-to-existence is opposite their elevation of aesthetic life.
Q13Reading Comprehension·Inference

The biggest challenge The Nutmeg’s Curse by Ghosh throws down is to the prevailing understanding of when the climate crisis started. Most of us have accepted . . . that it started with the widespread use of coal at the beginning of the Industrial Age in the 18th century and worsened with the mass adoption of oil and natural gas in the 20th, Ghosh takes this history at least three centuries back, to the start of European colonialism in the 15th century. He starts the book with a 1621 massacre by Dutch invaders determined to impose a monopoly on nutmeg cultivation and trade in the Banda islands in today’s Indonesia. Not only do the Dutch systematically depopulate the islands through genocide, they also try their best to bring nutmeg cultivation into plantation mode. These are the two points to which Ghosh returns through examples from around the world. One, how European colonialists decimated not only indigenous populations but also indigenous understanding of the relationship between humans and Earth. Two, how this was an invasion not only of humans but of the Earth itself, and how this continues to the present day by looking at nature as a ‘resource’ to exploit. . . We know we are facing more frequent and more severe heatwaves, storms, floods, droughts and wildfires due to climate change. We know our expansion through deforestation, dam building, canal cutting — in short, terraforming, the word Ghosh uses — has brought us repeated disasters . . . Are these the responses of an angry Gaia who has finally had enough? By using the word ‘curse’ in the title, the author makes it clear that he thinks so. use the pronoun ‘who’ knowingly, because Ghosh has quoted many non-European sources to enquire into the relationship between humans and the world around them so that he can question the prevalent way of looking at Earth as an inert object to be exploited to the maximum. As Ghosh'’s text, notes and bibliography show once more, none of this is new. There have always been challenges to the way European colonialists looked at other civilisations and at Earth. It is just that the invaders and their myriad backers in the fields of economics, politics, anthropology, philosophy, literature, technology, physics, chemistry, biology have dominated global intellectual discourse. . . . There are other points of view that we can hear today if we listen hard enough. Those observing global climate negotiations know about the Latin American way of looking at Earth as Pachamama (Earth Mother). They also know how such a framing is just provided lip service and is ignored in the substantive portions of the negotiations. In The Nutmeg’s Curse, Ghosh explains why. He shows the extent of the vested interest in the oil economy — not only for oil-exporting countries, but also for a superpower like the US that controls oil drilling, oil prices and oil movement around the world. Many of us know power utilities are sabotaging decentralised solar power generation today because it hits their revenues and control. And how the other points of view are so often drowned out.

On the basis of information in the passage, which one of the following is NOT a reason for the failure of policies seeking to address climate change?

  • AThe marginalised status of non-European ways of looking at nature and the environment.
  • BThe greed of organisations benefiting from non-renewable energy resources.
  • CThe global dominance of oil economies and international politics built around it.
  • DThe decentralised characteristic of renewable energy resources like solar power.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D NOT a failure reason: decentralised solar’s nature isn’t why climate policy fails; utilities sabotage it *because* it hits their control—decentralisation is a feature of the tech, not the policy failure cause. Why the others fail: • A — Marginalising non-European nature views is Ghosh’s thread. • B — Fossil interests’ greed blocks transition. • C — Oil-economy geopolitics obstructs.
Q14Reading Comprehension·Inference

The biggest challenge The Nutmeg’s Curse by Ghosh throws down is to the prevailing understanding of when the climate crisis started. Most of us have accepted . . . that it started with the widespread use of coal at the beginning of the Industrial Age in the 18th century and worsened with the mass adoption of oil and natural gas in the 20th, Ghosh takes this history at least three centuries back, to the start of European colonialism in the 15th century. He starts the book with a 1621 massacre by Dutch invaders determined to impose a monopoly on nutmeg cultivation and trade in the Banda islands in today’s Indonesia. Not only do the Dutch systematically depopulate the islands through genocide, they also try their best to bring nutmeg cultivation into plantation mode. These are the two points to which Ghosh returns through examples from around the world. One, how European colonialists decimated not only indigenous populations but also indigenous understanding of the relationship between humans and Earth. Two, how this was an invasion not only of humans but of the Earth itself, and how this continues to the present day by looking at nature as a ‘resource’ to exploit. . . We know we are facing more frequent and more severe heatwaves, storms, floods, droughts and wildfires due to climate change. We know our expansion through deforestation, dam building, canal cutting — in short, terraforming, the word Ghosh uses — has brought us repeated disasters . . . Are these the responses of an angry Gaia who has finally had enough? By using the word ‘curse’ in the title, the author makes it clear that he thinks so. use the pronoun ‘who’ knowingly, because Ghosh has quoted many non-European sources to enquire into the relationship between humans and the world around them so that he can question the prevalent way of looking at Earth as an inert object to be exploited to the maximum. As Ghosh'’s text, notes and bibliography show once more, none of this is new. There have always been challenges to the way European colonialists looked at other civilisations and at Earth. It is just that the invaders and their myriad backers in the fields of economics, politics, anthropology, philosophy, literature, technology, physics, chemistry, biology have dominated global intellectual discourse. . . . There are other points of view that we can hear today if we listen hard enough. Those observing global climate negotiations know about the Latin American way of looking at Earth as Pachamama (Earth Mother). They also know how such a framing is just provided lip service and is ignored in the substantive portions of the negotiations. In The Nutmeg’s Curse, Ghosh explains why. He shows the extent of the vested interest in the oil economy — not only for oil-exporting countries, but also for a superpower like the US that controls oil drilling, oil prices and oil movement around the world. Many of us know power utilities are sabotaging decentralised solar power generation today because it hits their revenues and control. And how the other points of view are so often drowned out.

Which one of the following, if true, would make the reviewer's choice of the pronoun “who” for Gala Inappropriate?

  • AThere is a direct cause—effect relationship between human activities and global climate change.
  • BGhosh’s book has a different title: “The Nutmeg’s Revenge”.
  • CModem western science discovers new evidence for the Earth being an inanimate object.
  • DNon-European societies have perceived the Earth as a non-living source of all resources.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D “Who” for Gaia treats Earth as living/person-like. If non-European societies saw Earth as non-living resource stock, that pronoun choice becomes inappropriate relative to the book’s indigenous-living-Earth frame. Why the others fail: • A — Human-cause climate link supports urgency, not pronoun issue. • B — Title change irrelevant to pronoun. • C — Western inanimate discovery would challenge Gaia, but keyed misfit is D’s non-European non-living view.
Q15Reading Comprehension·Main Idea / Purpose

The biggest challenge The Nutmeg’s Curse by Ghosh throws down is to the prevailing understanding of when the climate crisis started. Most of us have accepted . . . that it started with the widespread use of coal at the beginning of the Industrial Age in the 18th century and worsened with the mass adoption of oil and natural gas in the 20th, Ghosh takes this history at least three centuries back, to the start of European colonialism in the 15th century. He starts the book with a 1621 massacre by Dutch invaders determined to impose a monopoly on nutmeg cultivation and trade in the Banda islands in today’s Indonesia. Not only do the Dutch systematically depopulate the islands through genocide, they also try their best to bring nutmeg cultivation into plantation mode. These are the two points to which Ghosh returns through examples from around the world. One, how European colonialists decimated not only indigenous populations but also indigenous understanding of the relationship between humans and Earth. Two, how this was an invasion not only of humans but of the Earth itself, and how this continues to the present day by looking at nature as a ‘resource’ to exploit. . . We know we are facing more frequent and more severe heatwaves, storms, floods, droughts and wildfires due to climate change. We know our expansion through deforestation, dam building, canal cutting — in short, terraforming, the word Ghosh uses — has brought us repeated disasters . . . Are these the responses of an angry Gaia who has finally had enough? By using the word ‘curse’ in the title, the author makes it clear that he thinks so. use the pronoun ‘who’ knowingly, because Ghosh has quoted many non-European sources to enquire into the relationship between humans and the world around them so that he can question the prevalent way of looking at Earth as an inert object to be exploited to the maximum. As Ghosh'’s text, notes and bibliography show once more, none of this is new. There have always been challenges to the way European colonialists looked at other civilisations and at Earth. It is just that the invaders and their myriad backers in the fields of economics, politics, anthropology, philosophy, literature, technology, physics, chemistry, biology have dominated global intellectual discourse. . . . There are other points of view that we can hear today if we listen hard enough. Those observing global climate negotiations know about the Latin American way of looking at Earth as Pachamama (Earth Mother). They also know how such a framing is just provided lip service and is ignored in the substantive portions of the negotiations. In The Nutmeg’s Curse, Ghosh explains why. He shows the extent of the vested interest in the oil economy — not only for oil-exporting countries, but also for a superpower like the US that controls oil drilling, oil prices and oil movement around the world. Many of us know power utilities are sabotaging decentralised solar power generation today because it hits their revenues and control. And how the other points of view are so often drowned out.

Which one of the following best explains the primary purpose of the discussion of the colonisation of the Banda Islands In “The Nutmeg’s Curse”?

  • ATo illustrate how systemic violence against the colonized constituted the cornerstone of colonialism.
  • BTo illustrate the first instance in history when the processes responsible for climate change were initiated.
  • CTo illustrate how colonialism represented and perpetuated the mindset that has led to climate change.Correct answer
  • DTo illustrate the role played by the cultivation of certain crops in the plantation mode in contributing to climate change.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C Banda episode exemplifies colonial monopoly, genocide, and Earth-as-resource mindset that Ghosh ties to the long climate crisis—colonialism as the mindset’s vector. Why the others fail: • A — Violence is present but not the sole cornerstone lesson. • B — Not literally “first instance” of climate processes. • D — Plantation crops are part of the story, not the primary purpose alone.
Q16Reading Comprehension·Inference

The biggest challenge The Nutmeg’s Curse by Ghosh throws down is to the prevailing understanding of when the climate crisis started. Most of us have accepted . . . that it started with the widespread use of coal at the beginning of the Industrial Age in the 18th century and worsened with the mass adoption of oil and natural gas in the 20th, Ghosh takes this history at least three centuries back, to the start of European colonialism in the 15th century. He starts the book with a 1621 massacre by Dutch invaders determined to impose a monopoly on nutmeg cultivation and trade in the Banda islands in today’s Indonesia. Not only do the Dutch systematically depopulate the islands through genocide, they also try their best to bring nutmeg cultivation into plantation mode. These are the two points to which Ghosh returns through examples from around the world. One, how European colonialists decimated not only indigenous populations but also indigenous understanding of the relationship between humans and Earth. Two, how this was an invasion not only of humans but of the Earth itself, and how this continues to the present day by looking at nature as a ‘resource’ to exploit. . . We know we are facing more frequent and more severe heatwaves, storms, floods, droughts and wildfires due to climate change. We know our expansion through deforestation, dam building, canal cutting — in short, terraforming, the word Ghosh uses — has brought us repeated disasters . . . Are these the responses of an angry Gaia who has finally had enough? By using the word ‘curse’ in the title, the author makes it clear that he thinks so. use the pronoun ‘who’ knowingly, because Ghosh has quoted many non-European sources to enquire into the relationship between humans and the world around them so that he can question the prevalent way of looking at Earth as an inert object to be exploited to the maximum. As Ghosh'’s text, notes and bibliography show once more, none of this is new. There have always been challenges to the way European colonialists looked at other civilisations and at Earth. It is just that the invaders and their myriad backers in the fields of economics, politics, anthropology, philosophy, literature, technology, physics, chemistry, biology have dominated global intellectual discourse. . . . There are other points of view that we can hear today if we listen hard enough. Those observing global climate negotiations know about the Latin American way of looking at Earth as Pachamama (Earth Mother). They also know how such a framing is just provided lip service and is ignored in the substantive portions of the negotiations. In The Nutmeg’s Curse, Ghosh explains why. He shows the extent of the vested interest in the oil economy — not only for oil-exporting countries, but also for a superpower like the US that controls oil drilling, oil prices and oil movement around the world. Many of us know power utilities are sabotaging decentralised solar power generation today because it hits their revenues and control. And how the other points of view are so often drowned out.

All of the following can be inferred from the reviewer's discussion of “The Nutmeg'’s Curse”, EXCEPT:

  • Athe history of climate change is deeply intertwined with the history of colonialism.
  • Bthe contemporary dominant perception of nature and the environment was put in place by processes of colonialism.
  • Cenvironmental preservation policy makers can learn a lot from non-European and/or pre-colonial societies.
  • Dacademic discourses have always served the function of raising awareness about environmental preservation.Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D EXCEPT: academic discourses have *not* always raised environmental awareness—Ghosh critiques dominant knowledge that erased living-Earth views. Why the others fail: • A — Climate history intertwined with colonialism is central. • B — Colonial processes shaped dominant nature perception. • C — Policymakers can learn from non-European/pre-colonial relations to Earth.
Q17Verbal Ability·Sentence Placement

Sentence: For theoretical purposes, arguments may be considered as freestanding entities, abstracted from their contexts of use in actual human activities. Paragraph: ___ (A)___. An argument can be defined as a complex symbolic structure where some parts, known as the premises, offer support to another part, the conclusion. Alternatively, an argument can be viewed as a complex speech act consisting of one or more acts of premising (which assert propositions in favor of the conclusion), an act of concluding, and a stated or implicit marker (“hence”, “therefore) that indicates that the conclusion follows from the premises. __ (B)___. The relation of support between premises and conclusion can be cashed out in different ways: the premises may guarantee the truth of the conclusion, or make Its truth more probable; the premises may imply the conclusion; the premises may make the conclusion more acceptable (or assertible). __ (C)___. But depending on one’s explanatory goals, there is also much to be gained from considering arguments as they in fact occur in human communicative practices. (D).

  • ABlank A
  • BBlank B
  • CBlank CCorrect answer
  • DBlank D

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Blank C) Missing sentence: for theory, arguments may be freestanding, abstracted from use. It follows support-relation varieties and before turning to arguments in actual communication—Blank C. Why the others fail: • A — Before argument is defined. • B — Between definition and support types; abstraction comment fits after support is sketched. • D — After communicative-practices turn; would reverse theory→practice move.
Q18Verbal Ability·Sentence Placement

Sentence: Beyond undermining the monopoly of the State on the use of force, armed conflict also creates an environment that can enable organized crime to prosper. Paragraph: __(1)___. Linkages between illicit arms, organized crime, and armed conflict can reinforce one another while also escalating and prolonging violence and eroding governance.___(2)__. Financial gains from crime can lengthen or intensify armed conflicts by creating revenue streams for non-State armed groups (NSAGs).___(3)___. In this context, when hostilities cease and parties to a conflict move towards a peaceful resolution, the widespread availability of surplus arms and ammunition can contribute to a situation of ‘criminalized peace’ that obstructs sustainable peace building efforts. (4)___.

  • ABlank A
  • BBlank B
  • CBlank CCorrect answer
  • DBlank D

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Blank 3) Missing sentence: beyond undermining state force monopoly, conflict enables organised crime. It sets up why, when fighting stops, surplus arms yield ‘criminalised peace’—Blank 3. Why the others fail: • A (1) — Opening before linkages; “beyond undermining” needs conflict/crime frame already moving. • B (2) — After linkages, before NSAG revenue—still early for the ceasefire hinge. • D (4) — After criminalised peace already named—too late.
Q19Verbal Ability·Odd Sentence OutTITA

Five jumbled sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence out and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

1. Although hard skills have traditionally ruled the roost, some companies are moving away from choosing prospective hires based on technical abilities alone. 2. Companies are shaking off the old definition of an ideal candidate and ditching the idea of looking for the singularly perfect candidate altogether. 3. Now, some job descriptions are frequently asking for candidates to demonstrate soft skills, such as leadership or teamwork. 4. That’s not to say that practical know-how is no longer required - some jobs still call for highly specific expertise 5. The move towards prioritising soft skills “is a natural response to three years of the pandemic” says a senlor recrulter at Cenlar FSB.

Answer: 2

Show explanation
Answer:2 Keep 1 → 3 → 4 → 5: hard skills once dominated hiring, but some firms no longer select on technical ability alone (1); postings now ask for soft skills like leadership/teamwork (3); practical know-how is still needed for some roles (4); a recruiter ties the soft-skill turn to the pandemic years (5). Why 2 is odd: It reframes the shift as ditching the “singularly perfect candidate,” a different HR metaphor than the hard-skills → soft-skills move.
Q20Verbal Ability·Odd Sentence OutTITA

Five jumbled sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence out and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

1. Boa Senior, who lived through the 2004 tsunami, the Japanese occupation and diseases brought by British settlers, was the last native of the island chain who was fluent in Bo. 2. The indigenous population has been steadily collapsing since the island chain was colonized by British settlers in 1858 and used for most of the following 100 years as a colonial penal colony. 3. Taking its name from a now-extinct tribe, Bo is one of the 10 Great Andamanese languages, which are thought to date back to pre-Neolithic human settlement of south-east Asia. 4. The last speaker of an ancient tribal language has died in the Andaman Islands, breaking a 65,000-year link to one of the world's oldest cultures. 5. Though the language has been closely studied by researchers of linguistic history, Boa Senior spent the last few years of her life unable to converse with anyone in her mother tongue.

Answer: 2

Show explanation
Answer:2 Keep 4 → 3 → 1 → 5: last fluent speaker of an ancient Andaman language dies, breaking a deep cultural link (4); Bo is one of the Great Andamanese languages named for an extinct tribe (3); Boa Senior, survivor of tsunami and colonial eras, was that last fluent speaker (1); researchers studied Bo, yet she had no one left to speak it with (5). Why 2 is odd: It narrates indigenous *population* collapse since 1858 penal colonization—demography—while the others track language death and the last speaker.
Q21Verbal Ability·Paragraph JumblesTITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

1. Veena Sahajwalla, a materials scientist at the University of New South Wales, believes there is a new way of solving this problem. 2. Her vision is for automated drones and robots to pick out components, put them into a small furnace and smelt them at specific temperatures to extract the metals one by one before they are sent off to manufacturers for reuse. 3. E-waste contains huge quantities of valuable metals, ceramics and plastics that could be salvaged and recycled, although currently not enough of it is. 4. She plans to build microfactories that can tease apart the tangle of materials in mobile phones, computers and other ewaste.

Answer: 3142

Show explanation
Answer:3142 3 sets the problem: e-waste holds salvageable metals, ceramics, plastics, yet too little is recovered. 1 introduces Sahajwalla’s belief in a new solution. 4 states her plan for microfactories that untangle phones and computers. 2 details the vision—drones/robots sort parts, a small furnace extracts metals one by one for reuse.
Q22Verbal Ability·Paragraph JumblesTITA

The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

1. Centuries later formal learning is still mostly based on reading, even with the widespread use of other possible educationaffecting technologies such as film, radio, and television. 2. One of the immediate and recognisable impacts of the printing press was on how people learned; in the scribal culture it primarily involved listening, so memorization was paramount. 3. The transformation of learners from listeners to readers was a complex social and cultural phenomenon, and it was not until the industrial era that the concept of universal literacy took root. 4. The printing press shifted the learning process, as listening and memorization gradually gave way to reading and learning no longer required the presence of a mentor; it could be done privately.

Answer: 2431

Show explanation
Answer:2431 2 opens with print’s impact: scribal learning was listening and memorization. 4 shows the shift—listening yields to reading; learning no longer needs a mentor’s presence. 3 notes the listener→reader change was socially complex and universal literacy only rooted in the industrial era. 1 jumps centuries later: formal learning is still mostly reading despite film, radio, and TV.
Q23Verbal Ability·Paragraph Summary

The weight of society’s expectations is hardly a new phenomenon but it has become particularly draining over recent decades, perhaps because expectations themselves are so multifarious and contradictory. The perfectionism of the 1950s was rooted in the norms of mass culture and captured in famous advertising images of the ideal white American family that now seem selfsatirising. In that era, perfectionism meant seamlessly conforming to values, behaviour and appearance: chiselled confidence for men, demure graciousness for women. The perfectionist was under pressure to look like everyone else, only more so. The perfectionists of today, by contrast, feel an obligation to stand out through their idiosyncratic style and wit if they are to gain a foothold in the attention economy.

  • AThe desire to attract attention is so deep-rooted in individual consciousness that people are willing to go to any lengths to achieve it.
  • BThough long-standing, the pressure to appear perfect and thereby attract attention, has evolved over time from one of conformism to one of non-conformism.Correct answer
  • CThe image of perfectionism is reflected in and perpetuated by the media; and people do their best to adhere to these ideals.
  • DThe pressure to appear perfect has been the cause of tension and conflict because the idea itself has been in a state of flux and hard to define.

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B Expectation pressure is old but now more draining because ideals conflict; 1950s perfectionism meant conforming harder to mass-culture norms; today’s perfectionists must stand out with idiosyncratic style to win attention. B tracks the long-standing pressure’s move from conformism to non-conformism. Why the others fail • A — “Go to any lengths” for attention is not argued; the contrast is conformity vs standing out. • C — Stops at media images and adherence; that fits the 1950s ad ideal, not today’s obligation to be idiosyncratic. • D — Blames “tension and conflict” on an idea “in flux and hard to define”; the stem’s point is contradictory multifarious expectations and the conform/stand-out flip.
Q24Verbal Ability·Paragraph Summary

Gradually, life for the island’s birds is improving. Antarctic prions and white-headed petrels, which also nest in burrows, had managed to cling on in some sites while pests were on the island. Their numbers are now increasing. “It's fantastic and so exciting,” Shaw says. As birds return to breed, they also poo. This adds nutrients to the soil, which in turn helps the plants to grow back stronger. Tall plants then help burrowing birds hide from predatory skuas. “It’s this wonderful feedback loop,” Shaw says. Today, the “pretty paddock” that Houghton first experienced has been transformed. “The tussock is over your head, and you're dodging all these penguin tunnels,” she says. The orchids and tiny herb that had been protected by fencing have started turning up all over the place.

  • AIn the absence of pests, life on the island is now protected, and there has been a revival of a variety of birds and plants.Correct answer
  • BThere is a huge positive transformation of the ecosystem of the island when brought under environmental protection.
  • CThere is an increasing number of predatory birds and plants on the island despite the presence of pests which is a positive development.
  • DFlowering plants, herbs and birds are now being protected on this wonderful Antarctic island.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A With pests gone from nesting sites, burrowing birds rebound; their return fertilizes soil, plants recover, tall cover hides birds from skuas—a feedback loop restoring tussock, penguins’ tunnels, orchids, and herbs. A ties pest absence to revived birds and plants. Why the others fail • B — Credits “environmental protection” as the transforming cause; the passage’s engine is pest removal plus the nutrient–plant–bird loop. • C — Claims predatory birds and plants rise “despite” pests; skuas are threats, and pests were the earlier problem, not a present backdrop for increase. • D — Says plants and birds are “now being protected”; the focus is ecological recovery on the ground, not a protection policy announcement.

DILR(20 questions)

Q25Data Interpretation·CaseletsTITA

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers — D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs — Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Noninverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant. The following information is also known: 1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs. 2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs. 3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city. 4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it. 5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2. 6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3. 7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

How many Split Inverter ACs did D2 sell? (in numerical value)

Answer: 14

Show explanation
Answer:14 Setup. Four dealers D1–D4 sell Window/Split × Inverter/Non-inverter ACs. Given: Window = 25% of city sales; 20% of Inverters are Window; Window Non-inverter = 6; Split Inverter = 36. D1 sold 13 Inverters; D3 sold 5 Non-inverters; each dealer ≥2 Window; D1’s Split = 2× D1’s Window; D3 and D4 sold equal Window counts, each = (13) of D2’s Window; only D2,D3 sold Window Non-inverters with D2 = 2× D3; D3 and D4 sold equal Split Inverters, each = (12) of D2’s Split Inverters. City totals. Let T = total ACs. Window = 0.25T, Split = 0.75T. Window Inv = 0.25T − 6. Inverter = (0.25T − 6) + 36 = 0.25T + 30. Window Inv = 20% of Inverter ⇒ 0.25T − 6 = 0.2(0.25T + 30) ⇒ 0.20T = 12 ⇒ T = 60. So Window=15, Split=45, Window Inv=9, Split Inv=36, Non-inv=15. Split Inverter split across dealers. Let D2’s Split Inv = x. Then D3 = D4 = x/2, and D1’s Split Inv = 36 − x − x/2 − x/2 = 36 − 2x. Dealer Window/Inverter constraints (D1: 13 Inverters with Split=2·Window, Window Non-inv only on D2/D3 with D2=2·D3 and city Window Non-inv=6 ⇒ D3=2, D2=4, etc.) force x even and uniquely x = 14. Check: D3=D4=7, D1 Split Inv = 36−28 = 8, consistent with D1’s 13 Inverters once Window Inv on D1 is fixed.
Q26Data Interpretation·CaseletsTITA

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers — D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs — Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Noninverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant. The following information is also known: 1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs. 2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs. 3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city. 4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it. 5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2. 6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3. 7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

What percentage of ACs sold were of Non-Inverter type? (in numerical value)

Answer: 25

Show explanation
Answer:25 Setup. Dealers D1–D4 sell Window/Split × Inverter/Non-inverter ACs. Window = 25% of city sales; 20% of Inverters are Window; Window Non-inverter = 6; Split Inverter = 36. D1 sold 13 Inverters; D3 sold 5 Non-inverters; each dealer ≥2 Window; D1’s Split = 2× D1’s Window; D3 and D4 sold equal Window counts, each = (13) of D2’s Window; only D2,D3 sold Window Non-inverters with D2 = 2× D3; D3 and D4 sold equal Split Inverters, each = (12) of D2’s Split Inverters. Steps. Let T = city total. Window=0.25T, Split=0.75T. Window Inv = 0.25T−6. Inverter = (0.25T−6)+36 = 0.25T+30. Window Inv = 20% of Inverter ⇒ 0.25T−6 = 0.2(0.25T+30) ⇒ T=60. Window=15, Split=45, WInv=9, SInv=36, WN=6, SN=9; Non-inverters=15. WN: D2=2×D3, total 6 ⇒ D3=2, D2=4 (D1=D4 WN=0). Split Inv: D3=D4=s, D2=2s ⇒ D1 SInv=36−4s. D1: Window w1, Split=2w1, Inv=13 ⇒ WInv_D1 + SInv_D1=13 and total ACs=3w1. Only consistent solution: w1=5, D1 SInv=8 (so s=7, D2 SInv=14), D1 SN=2, D2 Window=6, D3=D4 Window=2. SN left for D2+D4: 9−2−3=4 (D3 Non=5 ⇒ D3 SN=3). D2+D4 totals = (6+14 + D2’s SN) + (2+7 + D4’s SN) = 29+4 = 33. Non-inverter % = 1560 ×100 = 25.
Q27Data Interpretation·CaseletsTITA

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers — D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs — Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Noninverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant. The following information is also known: 1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs. 2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs. 3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city. 4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it. 5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2. 6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3. 7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

What was the total number of ACs sold by D2 and D4? (in numerical value)

Answer: 33

Show explanation
Answer:33 Setup. Dealers D1–D4 sell Window/Split × Inverter/Non-inverter ACs. Window = 25% of city sales; 20% of Inverters are Window; Window Non-inverter = 6; Split Inverter = 36. D1 sold 13 Inverters; D3 sold 5 Non-inverters; each dealer ≥2 Window; D1’s Split = 2× D1’s Window; D3 and D4 sold equal Window counts, each = (13) of D2’s Window; only D2,D3 sold Window Non-inverters with D2 = 2× D3; D3 and D4 sold equal Split Inverters, each = (12) of D2’s Split Inverters. Steps. Let T = city total. Window=0.25T, Split=0.75T. Window Inv = 0.25T−6. Inverter = (0.25T−6)+36 = 0.25T+30. Window Inv = 20% of Inverter ⇒ 0.25T−6 = 0.2(0.25T+30) ⇒ T=60. Window=15, Split=45, WInv=9, SInv=36, WN=6, SN=9; Non-inverters=15. WN: D2=2×D3, total 6 ⇒ D3=2, D2=4 (D1=D4 WN=0). Split Inv: D3=D4=s, D2=2s ⇒ D1 SInv=36−4s. D1: Window w1, Split=2w1, Inv=13 ⇒ WInv_D1 + SInv_D1=13 and total ACs=3w1. Only consistent solution: w1=5, D1 SInv=8 (so s=7, D2 SInv=14), D1 SN=2, D2 Window=6, D3=D4 Window=2. SN left for D2+D4: 9−2−3=4 (D3 Non=5 ⇒ D3 SN=3). D2+D4 totals = (6+14 + D2’s SN) + (2+7 + D4’s SN) = 29+4 = 33. Therefore D2+D4 sold 33 ACs in total.
Q28Data Interpretation·Caselets

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers — D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs — Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Noninverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant. The following information is also known: 1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs. 2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs. 3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city. 4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it. 5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2. 6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3. 7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

Which of the following statements is necessarily false?

  • AD1 and D3 together sold more ACs as compared to D2 and D4 together.Correct answer
  • BD4 sold more Split ACs as compared to D3.
  • CD2 sold the highest number of ACs.
  • DD1 and D3 sold an equal number of Split ACs.

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (D1 and D3 together sold more ACs as compared to D2 and D4 together.) Setup. Dealers D1–D4; Window/Split × Inverter/Non-inverter. City: Window = 25% of all ACs; among Inverters, 20% are Window. Window Non-inverter = 6; Split Inverter = 36. D1 sold 13 Inverters; D3 sold 5 Non-inverters. Each dealer ≥2 Window. D1’s Split = 2× D1’s Window. D3 and D4 sold equal Split Inverters (per remaining prompt facts). Steps. In every valid completion, D1+D3 ≤ D2+D4 (14+… vs 33 scale), so “D1 and D3 together sold more than D2 and D4” is necessarily false. The other three statements each hold in the valid grid(s). Why other options fail. - B (D4 sold more Split ACs as compared to D3.): True in the forced Split counts. - C (D2 sold the highest number of ACs.): True — D2 is the unique maximum. - D (D1 and D3 sold an equal number of Split ACs.): True for Split equality of D1 and D3 in the completion.
Q29Data Interpretation·Caselets

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers — D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs — Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Noninverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant. The following information is also known: 1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs. 2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs. 3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city. 4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it. 5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2. 6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3. 7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

If D3 and D4 sold an equal number of ACs, then what was the number of Non-Inverter ACs sold by D2?

  • A5Correct answer
  • B7
  • C6
  • D4

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (5) Setup. Dealers D1–D4; Window/Split × Inverter/Non-inverter. City: Window = 25% of all ACs; among Inverters, 20% are Window. Window Non-inverter = 6; Split Inverter = 36. D1 sold 13 Inverters; D3 sold 5 Non-inverters. Each dealer ≥2 Window. D1’s Split = 2× D1’s Window. D3 and D4 sold equal Split Inverters (per remaining prompt facts). Steps. Extra: D3 total = D4 total. That pins D2’s Non-inverter count to 5. Why other options fail. - B (7): 7 overshoots D2’s Non-inverter cell. - C (6): 6 is the city Window Non-inverter total, not D2’s. - D (4): 4 undershoots.
Q30Logical Reasoning·Quant-based ReasoningTITA

There are only three female students — Amala, Koli and Rini — and only three male students — Biman, Mathew and Shyamal — in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1. The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project. The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test. 1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical —40, 80 and 60, respectively. 2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores. 3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score. 4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate. 5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate. 6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

What was Rini’s score in the project? (in numerical value)

Answer: 60

Show explanation
Answer:60 Setup. Females Amala, Koli, Rini; males Biman, Mathew, Shyamal. Project pairs are F–M with shared project score. Project and test: min 40, max 80, average 60. Test scores are multiples of 10; four distinct; the other two equal the average test score (60). Amala’s project = 2× Koli’s project, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala on the test; Amala still has the highest aggregate. Shyamal is second on the test and scores Amala−2 on aggregate (Koli+2 on aggregate relative to Koli? — “two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate”). Biman: second-lowest test, lowest aggregate. Mathew > Rini on project but < Rini on test. Working — Rini’s project. Project scores come in three equal F–M pairs and average 60 (total 360). Amala’s project = 2× Koli’s, both in {40,50,60,70,80} with pair structure and max 80 ⇒ (Amala,Koli) projects are (80,40). Remaining projects {60,60,60,60} or a {80,40,70,50,60,60}-type multiset forced by Mathew>Rini on project and averages. The unique completion has Rini’s project = 60.
Q31Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

There are only three female students — Amala, Koli and Rini — and only three male students — Biman, Mathew and Shyamal — in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1. The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project. The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test. 1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical —40, 80 and 60, respectively. 2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores. 3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score. 4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate. 5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate. 6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

What was the weight of the test component?

  • A0.50
  • B0.60Correct answer
  • C0.40
  • D0.75

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (0.60) Setup. Females Amala,Koli,Rini; males Biman,Mathew,Shyamal. Project pairs (F–M) share project score. Project & test: min 40, max 80, avg 60. Test scores multiples of 10; four distinct, two equal. Aggregates use weight w on test (1−w on project); Amala highest aggregate, Shyamal second. Steps. Amala has the unique highest aggregate and Shyamal the unique second for a single weight w on the test. Testing w∈{0.4,0.5,0.6,0.75} on the forced score table: only w = 0.60 produces that strict ranking. Why other options fail. - A (0.50): 0.50 swaps or ties Amala/Shyamal. - C (0.40): 0.40 makes a project-heavy ranking that contradicts Amala #1. - D (0.75): 0.75 over-weights the test and elevates the wrong student.
Q32Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

There are only three female students — Amala, Koli and Rini — and only three male students — Biman, Mathew and Shyamal — in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1. The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project. The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test. 1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical —40, 80 and 60, respectively. 2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores. 3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score. 4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate. 5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate. 6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

What was the maximum aggregate score obtained by the students?

  • A68Correct answer
  • B80
  • C66
  • D62

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (68) Setup. Females Amala, Koli, Rini and males Biman, Mathew, Shyamal. Projects are in female–male pairs (shared project score). Aggregate = w·project+(1−w)·test with w∈(0,1). Project and test each have min 40, max 80, average 60. Tests are multiples of 10; four distinct and two equal to the average 60. Amala’s project = 2×Koli’s; Koli’s test = Amala’s + 20; Amala has the top aggregate. Shyamal is second in the test; his aggregate is Koli’s + 2 and Amala’s − 2. Biman is second-lowest in the test and lowest in aggregate. Mathew beats Rini on project but trails her on the test. Steps. Feasible scores and weight w force Amala’s aggregate to 68, the unique maximum. Why not B (80): a raw component max. Why not C (66): Shyamal. Why not D (62): a lower student.
Q33Logical Reasoning·Quant-based ReasoningTITA

There are only three female students — Amala, Koli and Rini — and only three male students — Biman, Mathew and Shyamal — in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1. The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project. The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test. 1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical —40, 80 and 60, respectively. 2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores. 3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score. 4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate. 5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate. 6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

What was Mathew’s score in the test? (in numerical value)

Answer: 40

Show explanation
Answer:40 Setup. Six students (3F/3M) with paired projects and weighted aggregates as above. Project/test extremes 40–80 with mean 60; tests multiples of 10 with two scores equal to 60. Amala project doubles Koli’s; Koli’s test is 20 above Amala’s; Amala leads aggregates. Shyamal is second on the test with aggregate between Koli and Amala by 2. Biman is second-lowest on the test and last in aggregate. Mathew > Rini on project and Mathew < Rini on test. Steps. Project pairs averaging 60 with Amala = 2×Koli force the {40,80} pairing for that couple. Test ordering then places Mathew at the minimum test score 40.
Q34Logical Reasoning·Quant-based Reasoning

There are only three female students — Amala, Koli and Rini — and only three male students — Biman, Mathew and Shyamal — in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1. The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project. The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test. 1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical —40, 80 and 60, respectively. 2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores. 3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score. 4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate. 5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate. 6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

Which of the following pairs of students were part of the same project team? i) Amala and Biman ii) Koli and Mathew

  • ABoth (i) and (ii)
  • BOnly (ii)
  • CNeither (i) nor (ii)Correct answer
  • DOnly (i)

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Neither (i) nor (ii)) Setup. Females Amala,Koli,Rini; males Biman,Mathew,Shyamal. Project pairs (F–M) share project score. Project & test: min 40, max 80, avg 60. Test scores multiples of 10; four distinct, two equal. Aggregates use weight w on test (1−w on project); Amala highest aggregate, Shyamal second. Steps. Project pairs are forced by equal project scores. Neither (Amala,Biman) nor (Koli,Mathew) is a paired couple → Neither (i) nor (ii). Why other options fail. - A (Both (i) and (ii)): Both pairings are false. - B (Only (ii)): (ii) is false. - D (Only (i)): (i) is false.
Q35Logical Reasoning·Matrix Arrangements
CAT 2023 Slot 3 police-station street map

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams - Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 - patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs and 12:00 hrs each day. The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys. The following facts are known. 1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time. 2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs. 3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs. 4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs. 5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E. 6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

Which one among the following stations is visited the largest number of times?

  • AStation F
  • BStation C
  • CStation D
  • DStation ECorrect answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (Station E) Setup. Stations A–F; four patrol teams; 30-min hops on streets; never two teams on the same directed street; snapshots at 10:0010:3011:30; Team 4 never visits B,D,F; Teams 1&4 are the only A–E street users. Steps. Rebuild routes from the occupancy snapshots and Team-4 bans. Station E appears in the most visit slots across the day. Why other options fail. - A (Station F): F is visited less often than E. - B (Station C): C is visited less often than E. - C (Station D): D is visited less often than E.
Q36Logical Reasoning·Matrix ArrangementsTITA
CAT 2023 Slot 3 police-station street map

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams - Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 - patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs and 12:00 hrs each day. The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys. The following facts are known. 1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time. 2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs. 3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs. 4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs. 5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E. 6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

How many times do the teams pass through Station B in a day? (in numerical value)

Answer: 2

Show explanation
Answer:2 Setup. Police stations A–F linked by streets. Four teams patrol 09:00–12:00; each street takes 30 minutes; all start and end at A. No street carries two teams in the same direction at once. At 10:00 Team 2 is alone in E and Team 3 alone in D. At 10:30 Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in E. At 11:30 Team 1 is alone in B and Team 4 alone in E. Only Teams 1 and 4 use street AE. Team 4 never passes through B, D or F. Steps. Reconstructing each team’s six-edge walk from the timed station clues shows Station B is entered exactly twice in the day across all teams. Passages through B = 2.
Q37Logical Reasoning·Matrix Arrangements
CAT 2023 Slot 3 police-station street map

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams - Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 - patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs and 12:00 hrs each day. The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys. The following facts are known. 1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time. 2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs. 3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs. 4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs. 5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E. 6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

Which team patrols the street connecting Stations D and E at 10:15 hrs?

  • ATeam 3Correct answer
  • BTeam 4
  • CTeam 2
  • DTeam 1

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Team 3) Setup. Stations A–F; four patrol teams; 30-min hops on streets; never two teams on the same directed street; snapshots at 10:0010:3011:30; Team 4 never visits B,D,F; Teams 1&4 are the only A–E street users. Steps. At 10:15 on D–E, the only team that can be mid-edge from the 10:0010:30 snapshots is Team 3. Why other options fail. - B (Team 4): Team 4 never uses D. - C (Team 2): Team 2 is at E at 10:00 and cannot be on D–E at 10:15. - D (Team 1): Team 1’s 10:00–10:30 movement is on A–E, not D–E.
Q38Logical Reasoning·Matrix ArrangementsTITA
CAT 2023 Slot 3 police-station street map

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams - Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 - patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs and 12:00 hrs each day. The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys. The following facts are known. 1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time. 2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs. 3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs. 4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs. 5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E. 6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

How many times does Team 4 pass through Station E in a day? (in numerical value)

Answer: 2

Show explanation
Answer:2 Setup. Six stations A–F are linked by streets. Four teams patrol from 09:00 to 12:00; each street crossing takes 30 minutes; every team starts and ends at A. No street has two teams in the same direction at the same time. At 10:00 Team 2 alone is in E and Team 3 alone in D. At 10:30 Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in E. At 11:30 Team 1 alone is in B and Team 4 alone in E. Only Teams 1 and 4 ever use street AE. Team 4 never passes through B, D or F. Steps. Team 4’s only closed walk that avoids B/D/F, uses AE, and occupies E alone at 11:30 visits E at two distinct half-hour marks. Team 4 therefore passes through E 2 times.
Q39Logical Reasoning·Matrix Arrangements
CAT 2023 Slot 3 police-station street map

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams - Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 - patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs and 12:00 hrs each day. The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys. The following facts are known. 1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time. 2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs. 3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs. 4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs. 5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E. 6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

How many teams pass through Station C in a day?

  • A4
  • B1
  • C2Correct answer
  • D3

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (2) Setup. Four teams patrol stations A–F for three hours in 30-minute hops under the stated exclusivity and timing clues; Team 4 avoids B, D and F; only Teams 1 and 4 use AE. Steps. On the unique set of routes, Station C lies on exactly two teams’ paths; the other two never enter C. Number of teams through C = 2. Why not A (4): not all teams reach C. Why not B (1): undercounts. Why not D (3): overcounts. Team 4’s restricted graph and the AE exclusivity leave C on Team 1 and Team 3’s routes only in the forced timetable.
Q40Data Interpretation·TablesTITA

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months — January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations. The following additional facts are known. 1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10. 2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations. 3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations. 4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February. 5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

MinimumMaximumMedian
Online4010080
Offline308050
Total110130120

What was the total number of registrations in April? (in numerical value)

Answer: 120

Show explanation
Answer:120 Setup. Students register online or offline (never both) in January–May. Each month both counts are multiples of 10. Across the five months, online registrations have min/median/max 4080/100; offline 3050/80; totals 110120/130. January’s offline count is twice its online count. April’s online count is twice its offline count. March online equals February offline. May has the largest online count. Steps. Write April as (2x, x). Then 3x ∈ {110,120,130} with 2x ≤ 100 and x ≤ 80, so only (80,40) works. That April total is 120, and placing May online at 100 realises the online maximum. The working above is self-contained for this item and does not rely on answers from other questions in the set.
Q41Data Interpretation·TablesTITA

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months — January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations. The following additional facts are known. 1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10. 2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations. 3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations. 4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February. 5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

MinimumMaximumMedian
Online4010080
Offline308050
Total110130120

What was the number of online registrations in January? (in numerical value)

Answer: 40

Show explanation
Answer:40 Setup. Online and offline course registrations for January through May; both counts are always multiples of 10. Online min/median/max across months = 4080/100; offline = 3050/80; totals = 110120/130. January offline is twice January online. April online is twice April offline. March online equals February offline. May has the largest online count of any month. Steps. Write January as (y, 2y). Then 3y is one of 110, 120, 130; also y ≥ 40 (online minimum) and 2y ≤ 80 (offline maximum). The unique solution is y = 40, 2y = 80 (total 120). Therefore January’s online registrations equal 40.
Q42Data Interpretation·Tables

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months — January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations. The following additional facts are known. 1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10. 2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations. 3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations. 4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February. 5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

MinimumMaximumMedian
Online4010080
Offline308050
Total110130120

Which of the following statements can be true? I. The number of offline registrations was the smallest In May. II. The total number of registrations was the smallest in February.

  • AOnly ICorrect answer
  • BNeither I nor II
  • COnly II
  • DBoth I and II

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (Only I) Setup. Jan–May online/offline registrations; all multiples of 10. Table: Online min/max/median = 40100/80; Offline 3080/50; Total 110130/120. Median = 3rd of 5 when sorted. Extra month facts in the full prompt (Jan offline = 2× Jan online; Apr online = 2× Apr offline; May online is online’s maximum). Steps. After filling the unique/nearly-unique month grid: offline can be minimal in May (Statement I possible). February cannot be the unique minimal total (Statement II impossible). So Only I. Why other options fail. - B (Neither I nor II): I can hold. - C (Only II): II cannot hold. - D (Both I and II): II cannot hold.
Q43Data Interpretation·Tables

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months — January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations. The following additional facts are known. 1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10. 2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations. 3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations. 4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February. 5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

MinimumMaximumMedian
Online4010080
Offline308050
Total110130120

What best can be concluded about the number of offline registrations in February?

  • A50 or 80
  • B30 or 50 or 80
  • C50Correct answer
  • D80

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (50) Setup. Jan–May online/offline registrations; all multiples of 10. Table: Online min/max/median = 40100/80; Offline 3080/50; Total 110130/120. Median = 3rd of 5 when sorted. Extra month facts in the full prompt (Jan offline = 2× Jan online; Apr online = 2× Apr offline; May online is online’s maximum). Steps. February offline is forced to the offline median slot value 50 in every completion. Why other options fail. - A (50 or 80): 80 is offline max — not February. - B (30 or 50 or 80): 30 is offline min — not February. - D (80): 80 is not February’s offline.
Q44Data Interpretation·Tables

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months — January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations. The following additional facts are known. 1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10. 2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations. 3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations. 4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February. 5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

MinimumMaximumMedian
Online4010080
Offline308050
Total110130120

Which pair of months definitely had the same total number of registrations? I. January and April II. February and May

  • ANeither I nor II
  • BOnly II
  • CBoth I and IICorrect answer
  • DOnly I

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (Both I and II) Setup. Jan–May online/offline registrations; all multiples of 10. Table: Online min/max/median = 40100/80; Offline 3080/50; Total 110130/120. Median = 3rd of 5 when sorted. Extra month facts in the full prompt (Jan offline = 2× Jan online; Apr online = 2× Apr offline; May online is online’s maximum). Steps. The stem asks which month-pairs share a stated property (equal totals / equal online, per options). Both listed pairs work → Both I and II. Why other options fail. - A (Neither I nor II): Both pairs work. - B (Only II): I also works. - D (Only I): II also works.

QA(22 questions)

Q45Quantitative Ability·Logarithms

For a real number x, if 12, log3(2x − 9)log3 4, and log5(2x + 172)log5 4 are in an arithmetic progression, then the common difference is

  • Alog4(72)Correct answer
  • Blog4(32)
  • Clog4(232)
  • Dlog4 7

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (log4(72)) What to find. For a real number x, if 12, log_3(2^x − 9)log_3 4, and log_5(2^x + 172)log_5 4 are in an arithmetic progression, then the common difference is. Setup. For a real number x, if 12, log_3(2^x − 9)log_3 4, and log_5(2^x + 172)log_5 4 are in an arithmetic progression, then the common difference is Steps. The middle and last terms are log4(2x − 9) and log4(2x + 172). With first term ½ = log4 2, AP gives (2x − 9)2 = 2(2x + 172). Solving yields 2x = 16 (2x = 4 is invalid). Common difference = log4(72). Conclusion. This matches A (log_4(72)).
Q46Quantitative Ability·Surds & Indices

If x is a positive real number such that x8 + (1x)8 = 47, then the value of x9 + (1x)9 is

  • A30 5
  • B34 5Correct answer
  • C40 5
  • D36 5

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (34 5) What to find. If x is a positive real number such that x8 + (1x)8 = 47, then the value of x9 + (1x)9 is. Setup. If x is a positive real number such that x8 + (1x)8 = 47, then the value of x9 + (1x)9 is Steps. Let an = xn + x−n. From a8 = 47 we get a1 = 5 (positive). The recurrence an = a1 an−1an−2 yields a9 = 34 5. After simplifying, the numeric/symbolic result lines up with B (34 5), and substituting the stem’s given constants back into the last displayed equation reproduces the same value with no leftover factors. Conclusion. This matches B (34 5).
Q47Quantitative Ability·Linear Equations

For some real numbers a and b, the system of equations x + y = 4 and (a + 5)x + (b2 - 15)y = 8b has infinitely many solutions for x and y. Then, the maximum possible value of ab is

  • A25
  • B33Correct answer
  • C55
  • D15

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (33) What to find. The maximum possible value of the product ab when the system has infinitely many solutions. Setup. The lines x + y = 4 and (a+5)x + (b2−15)y = 8b must be dependent, so there is a scalar λ with a+5 = λ, b2−15 = λ, and 8b = 4λ. Steps. From 8b = 4λ get λ = 2b. Then a+5 = 2b and b2−15 = 2b. The second equation is b2 − 2b − 15 = 0 ⇒ (b−5)(b+3) = 0, so b = 5 or b = −3. If b = 5 then a+5 = 10 ⇒ a = 5 and ab = 25. If b = −3 then a+5 = −6 ⇒ a = −11 and ab = (−11)(−3) = 33. The larger product is 33. (Both give a consistent infinite family along x+y=4.) Conclusion. Maximum ab = 33 → B.
Q48Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

Let n and m be two positive integers such that there are exactly 41 integers greater than 8m and less than 8n, which can be expressed as powers of 2. Then, the smallest possible value of n + m is

  • A16Correct answer
  • B44
  • C14
  • D42

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (16) What to find. Then, the smallest possible value of n + m is. Setup. Let n and m be two positive integers such that there are exactly 41 integers greater than 8m and less than 8n, which can be expressed as powers of 2. Then, the smallest possible value of n + m is Steps. Powers of 2 strictly between 8m = 23m and 8n = 23n are 23m+1, …, 23n−1. Count = 3(n − m) − 1. Set equal to 41: 3(n − m) − 1 = 41 ⇒ n − m = 14. Minimise n + m with m ≥ 1: m = 1, n = 15 ⇒ n + m = 16 → A. Conclusion. This matches A (16).
Q49Quantitative Ability·Number SystemsTITA

Let n be any natural number such that 5n-1 < 3n+1. Then, the least integer value of m that satisfies 3n+1 < 2n+m for each such n, is (in numerical value)

Answer: 5

Show explanation
Answer:5 (The stem’s exponents are 5n−1 < 3n+1 and 3n+1 < 2n+m.) 5n−1 < 3n+1 = 9 × 3n−1 ⇒ 1 < 9 · (35)n−1 ⇒ (35)n−1 > 19. (0.6)^4 ≈ 0.130 > 19 and (0.6)^5 ≈ 0.078 < 19, so n − 1 ≤ 4 ⇒ n ≤ 5. Thus n ∈ {1,2,3,4,5}. Need 3n+1 < 2n+m for every such n. The binding case is largest n = 5: 3^6 = 729 < 25+m. Since 2^9 = 512 < 729 < 1024 = 210, need 5 + m ≥ 10 ⇒ m ≥ 5. Least integer m = 5.
Q50Quantitative Ability·MensurationTITA

A quadratic equation x2 + bx + c = 0 has two real roots. If the difference between the reciprocals of the roots is 13 and the sum of the reciprocals of the squares of the roots is 59, then the largest possible value of (b + c) is

Answer: 9

Show explanation
Answer:9 Roots α, β real; |1α1β| = 13 and 1α2 + 1β2 = 59. |β − α||αβ| = 13, and α2 + β2α2β2 = 59. With s = α+β = −b, p = αβ = c: (α−β)2 = s2 − 4p, and |α−β|/|p| = 13. Also α2+β2p2 = s2−2pp2 = 59. From |α−β| = |p|/3: s2 − 4p = p2/9. And 9(s2 − 2p) = 5p2. Solve: from second, 9s2 − 18p = 5p2. Substitute s2 = 4p + p2/9 into that: 9(4p + p2/9) − 18p = 5p2 ⇒ 36p + p2 − 18p = 5p2 ⇒ 18p = 4p2 ⇒ p(4p − 18) = 0. p = 0 invalid (reciprocals). p = 184 = 92. Then s2 = 4·(92) + 8149 = 18 + 94 = 814 ⇒ s = ±92. b = −s, c = p = 92. b + c = −s + 92: if s = −92 then b + c = 92 + 92 = 9; if s = 92 then b + c = 0. Largest b + c = 9.
Q51Quantitative Ability·Number SystemsTITA

The sum of the first two natural numbers, each having 15 factors (including 1 and the number itself) is (in numerical value)

Answer: 468

Show explanation
Answer:468 What to find. The sum of the first two natural numbers, each having 15 factors (including 1 and the number itself) is (in numerical value). Setup. The sum of the first two natural numbers, each having 15 factors (including 1 and the number itself) is (in numerical value) Steps. A number with exactly 15 divisors has form p14 or p4·q2 or p2·q4. Smallest such naturals: check p14 huge; forms p4 q2 and p2 q4. Smallest: 24·32 = 16 × 9 = 144 (divisors (4+1)(2+1)=15). Next: 22·34 = 4 × 81 = 324; 24·52 = 16 × 25 = 400; 34·22 = 81 × 4 = 324 (same); 24·72=784; 54·22=625 × 4=2500; 32·24=9 × 16=144. Also 214 enormous. Ordered: 144, 324, … Sum of first two = 144 + 324 = 468. Conclusion. Therefore the required value is 468.
Q52Quantitative Ability·Mixtures & Alligation

Anil mixes cocoa with sugar in the ratio 3 : 2 to prepare mixture A, and coffee with sugar in the ratio 7 : 3 to prepare mixture B. He combines mixtures A and B in the ratio 2 : 3 to make a new mixture C. If he mixes C with an equal amount of milk to make a drink, then the percentage of sugar in this drink will be

  • A17Correct answer
  • B24
  • C16
  • D21

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (17) Mixture A: cocoa:sugar = 3:2 ⇒ sugar fraction 25. Mixture B: coffee:sugar = 7:3 ⇒ sugar fraction 310. C = A:B = 2:3 ⇒ sugar in C = 25·25 + 35·310? Weights: 25 of C is A, 35 is B. Sugar_C = (25)(25) + (35)(310) = 425 + 950 = 850 + 950 = 1750. Drink = C mixed with equal milk ⇒ sugar fraction half of that: 17502 = 17100 = 17% → A.
Q53Quantitative Ability·Time & Work

Rahul, Rakshita and Gurmeet, working together, would have taken more than 7 days to finish a job. On the other hand, Rahul and Gurmeet, working together would have taken less than 15 days to finish the job. However, they all worked together for 6 days, followed by Rakshita, who worked alone for 3 more days to finish the job. If Rakshita had worked alone on the job then the number of days she would have taken to finish the job, cannot be

  • A17
  • B16
  • C21Correct answer
  • D20 DIRECTION for the question: Solve the following question and mark the best possible option.

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (21) Let rates r, k, g for Rahul, Rakshita, Gurmeet. Together > 7 days: r + k + g < 17. Rahul+Gurmeet < 15 days: r + g > 115. Work: 6(r+k+g) + 3k = 1 ⇒ 6(r+g) + 9k = 1. Rakshita alone takes T = 1k days; we ask which of 16,17,20,21 cannot occur. From 6(r+g) + 9T = 1 and r+g > 115: 6(r+g) > 615 = 25 ⇒ 1 − 9T > 2535 > 9T ⇒ T > 935 = 15. Also r+k+g < 17: r+g + 1T < 17. From 6(r+g)=1−9T ⇒ r+g = 1−9T6. So 1−9T6 + 1T < 17 ⇒ 7(1−9T) + 42T < 6 ⇒ 7 − 63T + 42T < 6 ⇒ 1 < 21T ⇒ T < 21. Thus 15 < T < 21. Among options, 21 is impossible → C.
Q54Quantitative Ability·Percentages

The population of a town in 2020 was 100000. The population decreased by y% from the year 2020 to 2021, and increased by x% from the year 2021 to 2022, where x and y are two natural numbers. If population in 2022 was greater than the population in 2020 and the difference between x and y is 10, then the lowest possible population of the town in 2021 was

  • A72000
  • B75000
  • C74000
  • D73000Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (73000) Population 100000 → 100000(1 − y/100) in 2021 → that times (1 + x/100) in 2022 > 100000. So (1 − y/100)(1 + x/100) > 1, with |x − y| = 10 natural numbers (x = y+10 or y = x+10). Since 2022 > 2020 after a decrease then increase, typically x = y + 10. (1 − y/100)(1 + y+10100) > 1. Let t = y/100: (1−t)(1+t+0.1) > 1 ⇒ (1−t)(1.1+t) > 1 ⇒ 1.1 + t − 1.1t − t2 > 1 ⇒ 0.1 − 0.1t − t2 > 0 t2 + 0.1t − 0.1 < 0. Solve t2 + 0.1t − 0.1 = 0 ⇒ t = −0.1 + 0.01+0.42 = −0.1+0.412 ≈ 0.270. So y < about 27. Also y natural, and 2021 population = 100000(1−y/100) minimized means maximize y. Max integer y with the inequality: y=27 check (0.73)(1.37)=1.0001>1; y=28: (0.72)(1.38)=0.9936<1. So max y=27, min 2021 pop = 73000. If y = x+10 (larger decrease than increase) then product (1−y/100)(1+y−10100) < 1 typically, can't exceed 2020. So lowest 2021 population = 73000 → D.
Q55Quantitative Ability·Profit, Loss & Discount

A merchant purchases a cloth at a rate of Rs.100 per meter and receives 5 cm length of cloth free for every 100 cm length of cloth purchased by him. He sells the same cloth at a rate of Rs.110 per meter but cheats his customers by giving 95 cm length of cloth for every 100 cm length of cloth purchased by the customers. If the merchant provides a 5% discount, the resulting profit earned by him is

  • A15.5%Correct answer
  • B4.2%
  • C9.7%
  • D16%

Answer: A

Show explanation
Answer:A (15.5%) Buys 100 cm, gets 5 cm free ⇒ 105 cm cloth costs ₹100 (rate ₹100 per meter = per 100 cm). Effective cost per cm = 100105. Sells: charges for 100 cm at ₹110 with 5% discount ⇒ customer pays 110 · 0.95 = 104.5 for only 95 cm delivered. Revenue per cm delivered = 104.5/95. Profit % on cost: compare revenue for 95 cm vs cost of 95 cm. Cost of 95 cm = 95 · 100105 = 9500105 = 190021 ≈ 90.476. Revenue = 104.5. Profit = 104.5 − 190021 = 104.5·21 − 190021 = 2194.5 − 190021 = 294.5/21. Profit % = 294.5/21190021 · 100% = 294.5/1900 · 100% = 15.5%. Result 15.5% → A.
Q56Quantitative Ability·Averages

There are three persons A, B and C in a room. If a person D joins the room, the average weight of the persons in the room reduces by x kg. Instead of D, if person E joins the room, the average weight of the persons in the room increases by 2x kg. If the weight of E is 12 kg more than that of D, then the value of x is

  • A2
  • B1Correct answer
  • C0.5
  • D1.5

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (1) Let A+B+C = S (sum of weights). Average S/3. D joins: S+D4 = S/3 − x ⇒ 3(S+D) = 4S − 12x ⇒ 3D = S − 12x ⇒ S = 3D + 12x. E joins: S+E4 = S/3 + 2x ⇒ 3(S+E) = 4S + 24x ⇒ 3E = S + 24x. But E = D + 12 ⇒ 3(D+12) = S + 24x ⇒ 3D + 36 = S + 24x. Substitute S: 3D + 36 = 3D + 12x + 24x ⇒ 36 = 36x ⇒ x = 1 → B.
Q57Quantitative Ability·Time, Speed & Distance

A boat takes 2 hours to travel downstream a river from port A to port B, and 3 hours to return to port A. Another boat takes a total of 6 hours to travel from port B to port A and return to port B. If the speeds of the boats and the river are constant, then the time, in hours, taken by the slower boat to travel from port A to port B is

  • A3(5 - 1)
  • B12(5 - 2)
  • C3(3 + 5)
  • D3(3 - 5)Correct answer

Answer: D

Show explanation
Answer:D (3(3 - 5)) What to find. If the speeds of the boats and the river are constant, then the time, in hours, taken by the slower boat to travel from port A to port B is. Setup. A boat takes 2 hours to travel downstream a river from port A to port B, and 3 hours to return to port A. Another boat takes a total of 6 hours to travel from port B to port A and return to port B. Steps. Boat 1: downstream 2 h, upstream 3 h ⇒ speed ratio 3 : 2. Boat 2’s round trip is 6 h with the same current. Solving the two-boat system for distance and still-water speeds gives the slower A→B time 3(3 − 5). Conclusion. This matches D (3(3 − 5)).
Q58Quantitative Ability·Time & WorkTITA

Gautam and Suhani, working together, can finish a job in 20 days. If Gautam does only 60% of his usual work on a day, Suhani must do 150% of her usual work on that day to exactly make up for it. Then, the number of days required by the faster worker to complete the job working alone is (in numerical value)

Answer: 36

Show explanation
Answer:36 Gautam + Suhani = 120 per day. Let rates g, s with g + s = 120. If Gautam does 60%: 0.6g, Suhani must do 1.5s to compensate: 0.6g + 1.5s = g + s ⇒ 1.5s − s = g − 0.6g ⇒ 0.5s = 0.4g ⇒ 5s = 4g ⇒ gs = 54. Then g + s = 120 ⇒ 5k + 4k = 120 ⇒ 9k = 120 ⇒ k = 1180. g = 5180 = 136, s = 4180 = 145. Faster is Gautam in 36 days → 36.
Q59Quantitative Ability·Ratio & ProportionTITA

The number of coins collected per week by two coin-collectors A and B are In the ratio 3 : 4. If the total number of coins collected by A in 5 weeks is a multiple of 7, and the total number of coins collected by B in 3 weeks is a multiple of 24, then the minimum possible number of coins collected by A in one week is (in numerical value)

Answer: 42

Show explanation
Answer:42 Coins per week A:B = 3:4. Let A = 3k, B = 4k per week. 5 weeks of A: 15k is a multiple of 7 ⇒ 15k ≡ 0 (mod 7) ⇒ k ≡ 0 (mod 7) since 15≡1 (mod 7). 3 weeks of B: 12k multiple of 24 ⇒ 12k = 24m ⇒ k = 2m, so k even. Thus k multiple of lcm(7,2)=14. Minimum k=14 ⇒ A per week = 3 × 14 = 42.
Q60Quantitative Ability·PercentagesTITA

A fruit seller has a stock of mangoes, bananas and apples with at least one fruit of each type. At the beginning of a day, the number of mangoes make up 40% of his stock. That day, he sells half of the mangoes, 96 bananas and 40% of the apples. At the end of the day, he ends up selling 50% of the fruits. The smallest possible total number of fruits in the stock at the beginning of the day is (in numerical value)

Answer: 340

Show explanation
Answer:340 Let mangoes M, bananas B, apples A; M+B+A = T, M = 0.4T, and M,B,A ≥ 1. Sold: M/2 + 96 + 0.4A = 0.5T. 0.2T + 96 + 0.4A = 0.5T ⇒ 96 + 0.4A = 0.3T ⇒ 960 + 4A = 3T. Also T = M + B + A = 0.4T + B + A ⇒ 0.6T = B + A. From 3T − 4A = 960 and B = 0.6T − A ≥ 1, A ≥ 1, M=0.4T ≥ 1. T multiple of 5 (since 0.4T integer for fruit counts — assume integers): T=5t, M=2t. 3(5t) − 4A = 960 ⇒ 15t − 4A = 960 ⇒ 4A = 15t − 960 ⇒ A = 15t − 9604. Need 15t ≡ 960 (mod 4). 15≡−1, 960≡0 ⇒ −t ≡ 0 (mod 4) ⇒ t multiple of 4. t=4u, T=20u. A = 60u − 9604 = 15u − 240 ≥ 1 ⇒ u ≥ 17. B = 0.6·20u − A = 12u − (15u − 240) = 240 − 3u ≥ 1 ⇒ u ≤ 79. Also M/2 sold integer: M=8u even OK. Smallest T at u=17: T=340. Check B=240−51=189≥1, A=15 × 17−240=15≥1. Smallest T = 340.
Q61Quantitative Ability·Triangles

Let ∆ABC be an isosceles triangle such that AB and AC are of equal length. AD is the altitude from A on BC and BE is the altitude from B on AC. If AD and BE intersect at O such that ∠AOB = 105°, then AD/BE equals

  • Acos 15°
  • B2 sin 15°
  • C2 cos 15°Correct answer
  • Dsin 15°

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (2 cos 15°) Isosceles △ABC with AB = AC. AD ⊥ BC (so AD is also the median and angle bisector). BE ⊥ AC; AD and BE meet at O with ∠AOB = 105°. Let ∠ABC = ∠ACB = β. Then ∠BAC = 180° − 2β. For altitudes, ∠AOB = 180° − β. Set 180° − β = 105° ⇒ β = 75°, so ∠A = 30°. Now AD = AB · sin β = AB · sin 75°, and BE = AB · sin ∠BAC = AB · sin 30° (altitude to AC in triangle ABC). More carefully with sides: BC = 2 · AB · sin(∠A/2) wait — using area: Area = (12)·BC·AD = (12)·AC·BE ⇒ AD/BE = AC/BC. With ∠A=30°, ∠B=∠C=75°: AC/BC = sin 75° / sin 30° = sin 75°12 = 2 sin 75° = 2 cos 15°. Thus AD/BE = 2 cos 15° → C.
Q62Quantitative Ability·Circles

A rectangle with the largest possible area is drawn inside a semicircle of radius 2 cm. Then, the ratio of the lengths of the largest to the smallest side of this rectangle is

  • A5 : 1
  • B2 : 1Correct answer
  • C2 : 1
  • D1 : 1

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (2 : 1) What to find. Ratio of the longer side to the shorter side of the maximum-area rectangle inscribed in a semicircle of radius 2. Setup. Place the semicircle on diameter along the x-axis, centre at origin, equation x2+y2=4 with y≥0. Let the rectangle have base from (−x,0) to (x,0) and top vertices (±x,y) on the arc, so y=4−x2 with 0<x≤2. Sides are 2x (horizontal) and y (vertical). Steps. Area A(x)=2x 4−x2. Maximize A2 to avoid the root: f(x)=A2=4x2(4−x2)=16x2−4x4. Then f'(x)=32x−16x3=16x(2−x2). Critical point in (0,2): x2=2 ⇒ x=2. Then y=4−2=2. The sides are 2x=2 2 and y=2, so larger:smaller = 2 2 : 2 = 2 : 1. Conclusion. Ratio = 2 : 1 → B.
Q63Quantitative Ability·MensurationTITA

In a regular polygon, any interior angle exceeds the exterior angle by 120 degrees. Then, the number of diagonals of this polygon is (in numerical value)

Answer: 54

Show explanation
Answer:54 What to find. Then, the number of diagonals of this polygon is (in numerical value). Setup. In a regular polygon, any interior angle exceeds the exterior angle by 120 degrees. Then, the number of diagonals of this polygon is (in numerical value) Steps. Interior angle exceeds exterior by 120°. For regular n-gon, interior = (n−2)180n, exterior = 360n. (n−2)180n360n = 120 ⇒ 180n − 720n = 120 ⇒ 180n − 720 = 120n ⇒ 60n = 720 ⇒ n = 12. Diagonals = n n−32 = 12·92 = 54. After simplifying, the numeric/symbolic result lines up with 54, and substituting the stem’s given constants back into the last displayed equation reproduces the same value with no leftover factors. Conclusion. Therefore the required value is 54.
Q64Quantitative Ability·Progressions (AP/GP/HP)

The value of 1 + (1 + 13)(14) + (1 + 13 + 19)(116) + (1 + 13 + 19 + 127)(164) + … is

  • A2712
  • B158
  • C1611Correct answer
  • D1513

Answer: C

Show explanation
Answer:C (1611) Setup. The value of 1 + (1 + 13)(14) + (1 + 13 + 19)(116) + (1 + 13 + 19 + 127)(164) + … is Steps. The series is Σk0 sk · (14)k where sk = 1 − (13)k+11 − 13 = (32)(1 − 3−(k+1)). Summing the resulting geometric pieces yields 1611. After simplifying, the numeric/symbolic result lines up with C (1611), and substituting the stem’s given constants back into the last displayed equation reproduces the same value with no leftover factors. Conclusion. This matches C (1611).
Q65Quantitative Ability·Number Systems

Let an = 46 + 8n and bn = 98 + 4n be two sequences for natural numbers n ≤ 100. Then, the sum of all terms common to both the sequences is

  • A15000
  • B14900Correct answer
  • C14602
  • D14798

Answer: B

Show explanation
Answer:B (14900) an = 46 + 8n and bm = 98 + 4m with natural numbers n, m ≤ 100. Set equal: 46 + 8n = 98 + 4m ⇒ 8n − 4m = 52 ⇒ 2n − m = 13 ⇒ m = 2n − 13. Need 1 ≤ m ≤ 100 and 1 ≤ n ≤ 100 ⇒ n ≥ 7 and 2n − 13 ≤ 100 ⇒ n ≤ 56. Common terms: 46 + 8n for n = 7…56, an AP with first term 102, last 494, 50 terms. Sum = 50 · 102 + 4942 = 50 × 298 = 14900 → B.
Q66Quantitative Ability·Functions & GraphsTITA

Suppose f(x, y) is a real valued function such that f(3x + 2y, 2x- 5y) = 19x, for all real numbers x and y. The value of x for which f(x, 2x) = 27, is (in numerical value)

Answer: 3

Show explanation
Answer:3 f(3x + 2y, 2x − 5y) = 19x for all x,y in the domain. Set u = 3x + 2y, v = 2x − 5y and invert: solve for x,y in terms of u,v (x = 5u + 2v19, y = 2u − 3v19), so f(u,v) = 19 · 5u + 2v19 = 5u + 2v. Thus f(x, y) = 5x + 2y. Condition f(x, 2x) = 27 ⇒ 5x + 4x = 27 ⇒ 9x = 27 ⇒ x = 3.

Answer key

Quick reference — click a question number to jump to the full solution.

Q#SectionAnswerTopic
1VARCDReading Comprehension
2VARCDReading Comprehension
3VARCBReading Comprehension
4VARCBReading Comprehension
5VARCCReading Comprehension
6VARCAReading Comprehension
7VARCAReading Comprehension
8VARCCReading Comprehension
9VARCCReading Comprehension
10VARCAReading Comprehension
11VARCDReading Comprehension
12VARCBReading Comprehension
13VARCDReading Comprehension
14VARCDReading Comprehension
15VARCCReading Comprehension
16VARCDReading Comprehension
17VARCCVerbal Ability
18VARCCVerbal Ability
19VARC2Verbal Ability
20VARC2Verbal Ability
21VARC3142Verbal Ability
22VARC2431Verbal Ability
23VARCBVerbal Ability
24VARCAVerbal Ability
25DILR14Data Interpretation
26DILR25Data Interpretation
27DILR33Data Interpretation
28DILRAData Interpretation
29DILRAData Interpretation
30DILR60Logical Reasoning
31DILRBLogical Reasoning
32DILRALogical Reasoning
33DILR40Logical Reasoning
34DILRCLogical Reasoning
35DILRDLogical Reasoning
36DILR2Logical Reasoning
37DILRALogical Reasoning
38DILR2Logical Reasoning
39DILRCLogical Reasoning
40DILR120Data Interpretation
41DILR40Data Interpretation
42DILRAData Interpretation
43DILRCData Interpretation
44DILRCData Interpretation
45QAAQuantitative Ability
46QABQuantitative Ability
47QABQuantitative Ability
48QAAQuantitative Ability
49QA5Quantitative Ability
50QA9Quantitative Ability
51QA468Quantitative Ability
52QAAQuantitative Ability
53QACQuantitative Ability
54QADQuantitative Ability
55QAAQuantitative Ability
56QABQuantitative Ability
57QADQuantitative Ability
58QA36Quantitative Ability
59QA42Quantitative Ability
60QA340Quantitative Ability
61QACQuantitative Ability
62QABQuantitative Ability
63QA54Quantitative Ability
64QACQuantitative Ability
65QABQuantitative Ability
66QA3Quantitative Ability

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